Volume 17 Number 11 Produced: Tue Dec 6 22:56:30 1994 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Chanukah - War or Oil [Eli Turkel] Daas Torah [Moshe Koppel] Qamatz (last words) v17n6 [Mark Steiner] Regarding Allegory in Gan Eden [M. Shamah] The "Misnagdishe Rambam" [Yosef Orenstein] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <turkel@...> (Eli Turkel) Date: Tue, 6 Dec 94 12:31:30 +0200 Subject: Chanukah - War or Oil In my last post I neglected to give my sources. The Maharal on Shabbat (21a) and also in Ner Mitzvah points out that there is no such concept as thanking G-d for a miracle. In the Temple the flame on the alter appeared as a lion and was not put out by the rain, when the people prostrated themselves there was room for everyone although they were crowded while standing etc. We have no record that special prayers were offered to thank G-d for these miracles. We are required to thank G-d when we are saved and we then recite Birkhat haGomel. Hallel is recited on Chanukkah because the Jewish people were saved (both physically and spiritually) and not because of any miracles. Similarly we recite al hanissim over the military victory. Also when a community is saved there is a custom to celebrate a "local Purim" for descendants of those saved. There is no need to celebrate if one sees a miracle that does not involve the safety of people. The Maharal explains that the purpose of the miracle of the oil was to demonstrate that this was indeed a victory of the pure against the impure of the few against the many and was not merely the strength of the Macabean army (see also Meshech Hochmah on Shemot 12:15). Megillat Taanit lists many military victories that were celebrated by days of feast. Chanukah is included in this list together with the other miltiary victories. After the destruction of the Temple only Chanukkah was retained because only Chanuukah had a miracle to prove that it was an authentic victory. How long the Hasmonean dynasty lasted is irrelevant. Rishonim disagree whether the establishment of the Hasmonean dynasty was good or not. This is all irrelevant to thanking G-d to saving us in the fight against the Syrian-Greeks. The original establishment of Chanukkah is clearly for the military victory and the saving of Jews. In other rabbinic sources the reason for the eight candles is given that the Macabees entered the Temple with eight spears and lit lights on top of these spears. With this answer there is clearly no reference to a miracle. The Gemara's objective was to study the halachot of lighting candles not why was Hallel and al Hanisim established. The Gemara understood that the basic concept of Chanukkah was established because of the war. The Gemara was just asking why was the celebration done through lights rather than reading a megillah or some other procedure. Thus Rashi explains that the Gemara is questioning which miracle was the cause of lighting the candles not why was Chanukkah established. This also answers the question of why was there a need for any miracle with the oil since the Halachah is that one may do the work in the Bet Hamikdash when the Cohen is "tamei" if the majority of the people are "tamei" (Pnei Yehoshua Shabbat 21b). The answer of the Maharal answers this question also. In fact there was no need for God to create a miracle so that the Menorah would be in use. The purpose of the miracle was so that the people would understand that God was behind the military victory. <turkel@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <koppel@...> (Moshe Koppel) Date: Mon, 5 Dec 1994 18:49:50 +0200 Subject: Daas Torah Several enthusiastic proponents of 'daas torah' on mail.jewish have argued that the phrase 'stifling daas torah' is something of an oxymoron. It was argued that daas torah is never directly imposed and that moreover several alleged cases of daas torah were in fact piskei halakha and hence presumably immune from the perjorative 'stifling'. Perhaps some more persuasive examples might clarify the issue. All of the following are recent cases of imposed daas torah: A quasi-haredi high school was prevented from opening in Yerushalayim because it intended to offer bagrut (high school diploma), a program for training Rabbanim to serve in exotic locales was threatened with cherem because Nechama Leibovich lectured there, a prominent women's seminary was put in cherem because it offered a course for advanced students which dealt with Bible criticism (for the purpose of 'da ma shetashiv'), the Steinsaltz edition of shas was put in cherem, a principal in Flatbush was told by a rov in Bnei Beraq that his elementary school students must learn Chumash in Yiddish even though virtually none of them understood a word. These examples are the high-profile cases; the real stifling is the every-day lot of any inquisitive, creative yeshiva bochur. Apparently, some of the aforementioned proponents of daas torah have had the luxury of taking for granted the benefits of an education which encouraged free inquiry, have freely chosen to affiliate themselves with the yeshiva velt, and have found fulfillment there. More power to them. Perhaps they should consider, though, that others, for whom the spirit of free inquiry could not be taken for granted precisely because of the dark shadow cast over their early intellectual-religious development by daas torah, might find that daas torah stifling. Having said all that, I still think that daas torah is indeed a fundamental concept in Yiddishkeit. Just as people turn to the great masters of their language not to learn correct grammatical usage but rather (among other things) to learn how to use the language most effectively, so too a Jew would once turn to his rov or rebbe not merely to ascertain specific halakhot, but to learn Yiddishkeit. So far so good. But there's a flip side. Nobody turns to ivory-tower linguists and their elegant theories of grammar for inspiration in how to use a language effectively. Unfortunately, now that the weight of daas torah has shifted decisively from community rabbanim and rebbes to roshei yeshiva, this is exactly what we are being asked to do. 'Ivory-tower' roshei yeshiva, who have spent their whole lives safely buffered from the dreaded balei-batim (and their annoyingly workaday concerns) by the equally unencumbered yungeleit who anointed them, can afford the luxury of purist ideologies. But it should surprise nobody if the application of such ideologies to real life tends to feel somewhat stifling. In short, I think the problem is that organic community Yiddishkeit and authentic daas torah are fast becoming an endangered phenomenon. They are being replaced by a stultifying patchwork of ideology and halakhic grammar books and starry-eyed appeals to oracles. No doubt this too shall pass. -Moish ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mark Steiner <MARKSA@...> Date: Tue, 6 Dec 94 22:42 +0200 Subject: Re: Qamatz (last words) v17n6 Yechezkel Schatz challenged my contention that had the Baalei Massorah meant to transmit two qematzim, with two different sound values, they would have used two different signs. I'll briefly respond to his arguments, but I believe that this subject has exhausted itself, at least for now, and am willing to let the readers decide for themselves. I also recommend reading modern Hebrew studies of Massorah and pronunciation. Yechezkel says that the patax genuvah (this is the patax sounded before such final letters as xet and `ayin even though printed under them) proves that the same sign, patax, can have two different values. I would refer readers to ancient vocalized Hebrew manuscripts. In these manuscripts, patax genuvah is written slightly to the right of the last xet or `ayin. It is in the printed texts of Hebrew that this typographical distinction disappeared. Hence Yechezkel has cited a non-fact in opposition to my thesis. As for the mappiq/dagesh distinction, in many ancient (but not in all) vocalized manuscripts, e.g. the Kaufmann Codex of the Mishnah, mappiq is written *below* the final heh, not in the middle, so there is a typographic distinction. As for shva, I was surprised that shva na` vs. shva nax was not used as a proof that one symbol can have two values. But this exception really does prove the rule: the Baalei Massorah themselves, in their writings, distinguish between two values of shva: silent vs. nonsilent shva. This is Massorah, not "dikduk." They make no such statement about qamatz. Furthermore, the fact that shva has two sound values does not necessarily mean that this distinction makes a linguistic difference (is "phonemic" in the language of linguistics). The way to prove that it does, is to show a pair of words, identically spelled, including the vowel signs, but having different meanings, the different meanings attributable to the two kinds of shva. It's hard to find such a pair (yir'u "they will see" vs. yiyr'u "they will fear" is not conclusive since the spellings of the words are not identical). It could very well be that the distinction between shva na` and shva nax is completely unpredictable by rules and unrelated to meaning in Massoretic Hebrew, and that is precisely why the Baalei Massorah were not interested in having two signs for, and preserving, a distinction that didn't make a difference. This is just a suggestion, but I happen to know that the subject of shva is the subject of ongoing research in Hebrew linguists, and the matter is not simple. It may be that the only thing one could say about shva is "pronounce shva the way your rebbe does," as grammatical rules may be incapable of doing better. In fact, I would appeal to the "massorah" (that is, the tradition handed down from one generation to another) of Hebrew. It can't be a coincidence that Yemenites and Litvaks (two groups of Jews who had little or no contact with one another for a very long period of history) pronounce qamatz the same way--aw--and in every kind of syllable. (The Sefardic grammarians, by contrast, who by fiat labeled any qamatz not in a closed unstressed syllable a "long qamatz," were forced to say that the word "kawl" in "kawl-`atzmothai tomarnaw," is pronounced "kal" (i.e. long qamatz), simply because "kawl" here has a stress! The absurdity that the same word (meaning "all") should be pronounced differently just because of an arbitrary rule, was certainly noticed by the grammarians themselves. For the same reason, they were forced to say that the first qamatz in "yaw-awmad xai" (Lev. 16:10) is pronounced differently from the second (hataf) qamatz, though nothing like this happens to the first patax in ya`amod or the first segol in ye'esof. To the contrary, in each of these three cases, the shva becomes a xataf and acquires the flavor of the preceding vowel.) If we are looking for two pronunciations of qamatz, I suggest listening to the reading tradition of the chassidim/galitzyner (as my brother, Prof. R. Steiner, has pointed out). They pronounce the word for "man" oodawm. That is, a qamatz in an open syllable is pronounced differently from that in a closed syllable (stress and therefore "dikduk" has nothing to do with it). This distinction is pretty regular, and I believe that Hungarian Jews have two names for these qematzim. Furthermore, this distinction oo/aw appears in various parts of Jewish Europe, such as Hungary (as I just mentioned), Germany, and Holland. This pronunciation, though it is non-Massoretic, must have ancient roots, since it appears in groups of Jews who had little contact with one another. It is just as valid as the Sefardic pronunciation and "dikduk." Nothing in the above is meant, by the way, to disparage the study of Biblical Hebrew. On the contrary, I mean to encourage a study which is certainly part of Torah, as the Rambam says in Pirkei Avoth (he gives it an example of a "mitzwah qalah"). ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <MSHAMAH@...> (M. Shamah) Date: Tue, 06 Dec 1994 00:04:35 -0500 (EST) Subject: Re: Regarding Allegory in Gan Eden Regarding Yosef Bechhofer's recent posting discussing sources that interpret aspects of Gan Eden allegorically, the Ralbag (1288 - 1344) interprets tree, command, serpent and punishment allegorically. He understands the Rambam to also interpret Hava (Eve) allegorically, but disagrees with him. Some excerpts from his commentary on Genesis 3 may be relevant (my hasty translation): "You should know regarding the serpent that we must admit it is allegorical.... however, regarding Hava, there is no compelling cause that she must be interpreted allegorically... and considering that she gave birth to Cain, Abel and Seth. However, it appears the Rav Hamoreh [Rambam] understood even Hava [in this context] allegorically, referring her to one of the human faculties... Some great later hakhamim erred and devised allegories (asu tsiyurim) regarding Cain, Abel and Seth and lost the intentions of the Torah. You should know that it is improper to devise allegories with Torah subjects except in places where it is compelling to be allegory, for if this measure was given over [freely] to men the Torah would fall and we would not be able to derive from it the intended benefit." ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <jo.or@...> (Yosef Orenstein) Date: Mon, 05 Dec 94 23:49:48 Subject: The "Misnagdishe Rambam" To the following question.... > > I ... don't see how I can believe as a 'fact' that is necessarily true > > on logical/rational grounds alone, that God gave us the Torah on > > Mt. Sinai. I feel compelled to treat is as a matter of faith, > > which is what it is, for me. > > Is this point of view really rejected out of hand in Orthodoxy? Or > > am I misunderstanding Yosef Bechhofer? Yosef Bechhofer responds: > I certainly would not call it rejected "out of hand," indeed, many > Chassidic approaches, perhaps most typified by R. Nachman of > Breslov, the Rambam's great antagonist, stressed "Emuna Peshuta" - > simple, pure faith, the very type of faith that the Rambam derides > - as PRIMARY in Judaism. > The Misnagdic scools of thought - beginning with the Rambam > (Yesodei HaTorah 8:1-3, Letter to the Wise Men of Marseilles, and > other places) and continuing on throughout the ages (Alter from > Kelm, Chochmo u'Mussar v2 p76), stressed, however, that the mitzva > of Emuna cannot be fully fulfilled except with firm rational > grounding. I read with amusement Yosef Bechhofer's claiming the Rambam as a "Misnaged" or as a source of a "Misnagdic approach" regarding "faith and knowledge." Indeed, the Rambam clearly states in the very beginning of his magnum opus, Mishnah Torah - Hilchos Yesodai HaTorah [1:1] "The foundation of all foundations, and pillar of all wisdom" is "Laidah" to KNOW that there is a Moyzuy Rishone (G-d), - not simply L'ha'amin, to "believe." And au contraire, this very "Chassidic" approach is highlighted especially in the writings of Chabad Chassidism, which emphasizes developing a Chochma, Binah, Da'at relationship with G-d, utilizing one's intellectual faculties to strive to "know" as much as humanly possible about G-d's presence. Not simply relying on Emunah Peshuta ("simple faith".) Yosef Orenstein ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 17 Issue 11