Volume 22 Number 47
Produced: Fri Dec 22 0:26:43 1995
Subjects Discussed In This Issue:
Eruvs
[Shoshana Sloman]
Female Singing
[Yacov Kenigsberg]
Kol Isha
[Eliyahu Teitz]
Pig heart valves???
[David Charlap]
Prayer for Rain
[]
Tal U-Mattar
[Eliyahu Teitz]
Two Days Rosh Chodesh (3)
[Hillel E. Markowitz, Lawrence S. Kalman, Gershon Dubin]
Visain Tal Umatar (2)
[Edwin Frankel, Joe Slater]
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From: <ssloman@...> (Shoshana Sloman)
Date: Thu, 30 Nov 95 23:33 EST
Subject: Eruvs
> 1) when did this big spurt of eruv constructions begin? I know
>some cities had eruvim several decades ago (Toronto being one). When did
>YOUR city build its eruv?
Although there has been an Orthodox community in Indianapolis for many
decades, and our shul has been at its current location since the 60's, our
eruv wasn't put up until about five years ago. I believe it is the first
one we've had in Indiana.
Shoshana Amelite Sloman
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From: Yacov Kenigsberg <ykngsbrg@...>
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 1995 10:13:19 -0500 (EST)
Subject: re: Female Singing
Eric Jaron Stieglitz <ephraim@...> wrote :
> I've heard *many* opinions on this topic, and I would appreciate it if
> somebody could point to an actual text that supported any of them.
> Among those that I've been told:
{...snip...}
> 3) The prohibition only applies to a single person, when a group of
> women sings (or a co-ed group sings), there is no problem.
The "Siridei Eish" discusses these two scenarios. the potential hetter
here is treih kolos lo nishma'im (two voices are not heard). this means
that when two voices are speaking simultaneously, a person cannot
determine which voice comes from where. thus, when a group sings, the
kol b'isha ervah (a woman's voice is "ervah") problem disappears. for an
all female group this is not so clear cut, since each voice clearly
comes from a woman, but this approach would clearly allow a mixed group.
BTW, the official policy of NCSY is to follow this hetter only for mixed
groups.
- yacov kenigsberg
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From: <EDTeitz@...> (Eliyahu Teitz)
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 1995 13:21:59 -0500
Subject: Re: Kol Isha
A recent poster asked:
>I am interested in learning more about the issue of Kol Eisha
>especially in the context of a Shabbat table with a husband and wife
> and 3 step daughters.
There is a story, misquoted in a Torah tape, about my great-grandfather,
Rav Elozor Preil, and Rav Baruch Ber Leibowitz.
Rav Baruch Ber was a rosh yeshiva at Yeshiva R. Yitzchak Elchanan for a
short while, as was my great-grandfather. R. Baruch Ber and some
talmidim came to spend Sukkot with my great-grandfather. My grandmother
and her sisters were seated in the house for lack of room in the sukka.
They were singing zmirot and one of the talmidim turned to R. Baruch Ber
and asked about a kol isha situation. His reply was, "They aren't
singing..they're davening ( saying zmirot ) with a tune." He had no
problem with allowing them to continue.
Eliyahu
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From: <david@...> (David Charlap)
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 95 11:00:13 EST
Subject: Pig heart valves???
Debbie Klein <dklein@...> writes:
>Someone I work with just told me that he has a Jewish friend who
>just got a heart valve replaced with one from a pig! I didn't know
>that this kind of this was done, but medicine is not my field. I am
>really curious whether this kind of thing is Halachically
It's absolutely permitted. I assume that without this operation, your
friend's friend would've died. As such, even if it would otherwise be
forbidden, it is in this case permitted. And if there is no other
option, it would even be mandated!
Nearly any mitzva may be violated for the purpose of saving someone's
life. And when this is done, that act of "violation" is not a sin, but
a mitzva.
Case in point: diabetics who are required to take daily insulin
injections often use insulin that is extracted from pigs. As far as
I know, no halachic authority forbids this, although some may prefer
the use of insulin from another source (since synthetic insulin can
now be manufactured) if it is medically permitted.
Even in the case of a direct prohibition, like actually eating pork,
if there should be some medical reason why you must, then halacha not
only permits the eating - it requires it! (Of course, I can't imagine
any medical condition that would require eating pork, but that's not
my point.)
[Similar replies from:
<gershon.dubin@...> (GERSHON DUBIN)
Mordechai Perlman <aw004@...>
Mod.]
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From:
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 95 00:21:00 -0500
Subject: Prayer for Rain
> This is an issue of great halachik discussion. Why do we follow the
> secular calendar and begin saying this on Dec 4 or 5th?
The exact reasoning is quite involved. The basic idea is that the
Gemoro says that in Bavel the time for asking for rain was based on the
solar calendar. December 4/5 or 6(this year) are solar dates; 7
Marcheshvan, when people in Israel start, is a lunar date.
> Are we saying this as a prayer for rain in our local vicinity?
It is for rain in Bavel, per the Gemoro. If rain is needed where you
are prior to then, you may ask for rain in the brocho of Shomea Tefila.
> What do they do in the Southern Hemisphere where the seasons are
> reversed?
When do they need rain?
Gershon
<gershon.dubin@...> |
http://www.medtechnet.com/~dubinG |
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From: <EDTeitz@...> (Eliyahu Teitz)
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 1995 13:22:17 -0500
Subject: Re: Tal U-Mattar
In a message dated 95-12-19 17:23:40 EST, you write:
A recent poster asked:
>Why do we follow the secular calendar and begin saying this on
> Dec 4 or 5th?
> Are we saying this for rain in Israel, in which case we should start
>when they do.
>Are we saying this when rain was needed in Bavel? If so, why?
>Are we saying this as a prayer for rain in our local vicinity?
>What do they do in the Southern Hemisphere where the seasons
> are reversed?
The request for rain is recited when the rain is needed. As such, in
Israel it is recited immediately after Sukkot ( delayed by two weeks to
allow the stragglers of aliya l'regel [ the pilgrims to the Beit
HaMikdash ] time to return home..ever though we do not have this
situation any more, the delay is still kept ).
At the time the brachot were instituted, there were two major Jewish
communities, Israel and Bavel. In Iraq the rains are needed
approximately 60 days after the beginning of fall ( the autumnal
equinox). As such, the community in Bavel started reciting v'seyn tal
u'mattar at that time. In our present calendar that date is night of
December 4th. ( The discrepency between 60 days after the equinox which
is around Sept 21 can be attributed to the changes between the Gregorian
and Julian calendars...this is not my area of expertise, but I think
that this is the reason for the shift ).
A solar year, being approximately 365 day & 6 hours long, leads us to
having a leap year every four years. In the year prior to a leap year
the earth has added 18 hours ( 3 X 6 hours ) and has not shifted days
yet ( not until the leap day ). While our calendars do not show this
shift, our planet does, and the equinox is a day later. As such, the
60th day after the equinox is likewise shifted, and we therefore recite
the request for rain on the night of the 5th, and not the 4th of
December.
Rambam raises the question of the Southern Hemisphere and tal u'mattar.
His solution is to follow the general custom of the world, but to add
the request of v'seyn tal u'mattar into the bracha of Sh'ma Kolenu.
Eliyahu
[Similar replies from:
<gershon.dubin@...> (Gershon Dubin)
Mod.]
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From: Hillel E. Markowitz <hem@...>
Date: Tue, 19 Dec 1995 21:46:50 -0500 (EST)
Subject: Re: Two Days Rosh Chodesh
On Tue, 19 Dec 1995, Issie Scarowsky wrote:
> Why do some months have two days of Rosh Chodesh, and others one? Could
The lunar month is 29 days 12 hours and 793 chalakim (1080 chalakim per
hour means 44 minutes 3 1/3 seconds). Using a base approximation of
29.5 days per month we get a 12 month year of six 29 day months and six
30 day months with each kind of month alternating. The actual length of
the year as 353, 354, and 355 days is caused by the extra minutes in
each month. The difference in the lunar and solar year is what causes
the addition of an extra month as a leap year.
I think that this shows why we never have a 31 day month and why two days
of rosh chodesh applies in Israel as well.
| Hillel (Sabba) Markowitz | Im ain ani li, mi li? |
| <H.E.Markowitz@...> | V'ahavta L'raiecha kamocha |
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From: Lawrence S. Kalman <VSLAWR@...>
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 95 15:46:04 +0200
Subject: Two Days Rosh Chodesh
In fact, the two days of Rosh Chodesh is indeed related to the "safeka
di yoma" problem, but its application is somewhat different from that
which brings about the second day of Yom Tov outside Israel.
Until the calendar was fixed, Rosh Chodesh was determined by
astronomical observation. Witnesses (In Jerusalem) would report their
observation of the new moon to the Beit Din, but testimony could only be
heard in the daytime. However, it was known that the new moon could
only occur either 29 or 30 days after the previous new moon. So the
29th day was observed as Rosh Chodesh in anticipation of sighting the
new moon. If indeed the new moon was seen on that day, it was therefore
the first day of the new month, and the following day did not need to be
observed as Rosh Chodesh. If, however, the new moon was not seen on
that day, it was the 30th day of the current month, and the next day,
the first day of the new month, was observed as Rosh Chodesh as well
(which it truly was).
For a similar reason, Rosh Hashana is observed for two days in Israel.
All the other Yomim Tovim occur after the first day of the month.
Because the first day of the month is already known, there is no safeka
di yoma applying to the other days (excepting outside Israel).
Because the issur of melacha (work forbidden on Shabbat or Yom Tov) does
not apply to Rosh Chodesh, there is no need to observe an additional day
outside of Israel.
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From: <gershon.dubin@...> (Gershon Dubin)
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 95 00:11:00 -0500
Subject: Two Days Rosh Chodesh
> Why do some months have two days of Rosh Chodesh, and others one?
The lunar month is somewhere between 29 and 30 days, so the months
are divided into months of 29 and 30 days, roughly equally (that is,
nowadays when the calendar is set by {ancient} calculations rather
than an ad hoc observation of the new moon). A month of 29 days is
followed by Rosh Chodesh on what would have been the 30th day but is
in fact the first day of the next month. A month of 30 days has as
its thirtieth day the first day of Rosh Chodesh of the following month.
> two day Rosh Chodesh is not because of "sefaka d'yomei", a doubt of the
> days because then all months should have two days Rosh Chodesh outside
> of Israel and in Israel they should always only observe one day for
> Rosh Chodesh which they don't do.
The reason the Roshei Chodoshim are done this way has to do with the
way the new month was set when it was done by observation of witnesses.
If a new moon were observed on the 30th day of the previous month that
day was declared Rosh Chodesh. (Seeing the moon prior to the 30th day
was an astronomical impossibility). If, however, the moon were not
visible that day, it would either be seen on (what would have been) the
thirty-first day of the month or, if not, that day would be declared
Rosh Chodesh regardless.
During the time that the Beis Din was awaiting witnesses to the new moon,
i.e. on the thirtieth day, **everyone** whether in Israel or not was
in doubt as to what day would turn out to be Rosh Chodesh. Therefore,
a month for which Rosh Chodesh was the 31st day of the previous month had
already had one previous day of (maybe it is and maybe it isn't) Rosh
Chodesh, for everyone.
I hope this is clear.
Gershon
<gershon.dubin@...> |
http://www.medtechnet.com/~dubinG |
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From: <frankele@...> (Edwin Frankel)
Date: Wed, 20 Dec 1995 00:27:00 -0100
Subject: Visain Tal Umatar
From: Zale Newman <jacobt@...>
> This is an issue of great halachik discussion. Why do we follow the
> secular calendar and begin saying this on Dec 4 or 5th?
> Are we saying this for rain in Israel, in which case we should start
> when they do.
> Are we saying this when rain was needed in Bavel? If so, why?
> Are we saying this as a prayer for rain in our local vicinity?
> What do they do in the Southern Hemisphere where the seasons are reversed?
For an excellent treatment of the issue, see the writing of Eliezer
Segal. He recently wrote an article on the subject for a local Jewish
newspaper here in Calgary..His home page is accessable through the world
wide web via the ANJY A-Z list. (The easiest way to find him is by
finding the connection for Uncle Eli's Passover Haggadah).
Good Luck with the topic.
Ed Frankel
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From: Joe Slater <joe@...>
Date: Thu, 21 Dec 1995 21:48:35 +1100 (EST)
Subject: Visain Tal Umatar
> From: Zale Newman <jacobt@...>
> This is an issue of great halachik discussion. Why do we follow the
> secular calendar and begin saying this on Dec 4 or 5th?
[...]
> What do they do in the Southern Hemisphere where the seasons are reversed?
We don't actually follow the secular calendar. We follow the *solar*
calendar, which is followed by the secular calendar. If the secular
calendar were to be changed we would have to find another convenient way
of following the solar calendar.
I haven't seen a written Psak (decision of Jewish law) on this, but as an
Australian schoolchild I was told that we follow the seasons of Israel
(i.e, pray as the rest of the world but that because of the reversal of
the seasons we should not repeat prayers if we make a mistake).
jds
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End of Volume 22 Issue 47