Volume 29 Number 53 Produced: Fri Aug 13 7:08:43 US/Eastern 1999 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Babies and Basar B'chalav [Moshe Feldman] Explaining Yesh Mei'Ayin to a 6 year old [Rachel Rosencrantz] Further Comments about Forced Mishebayraches/Vows [Russell Hendel] Slavery and a higher morality [Isaac A Zlochower] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Moshe Feldman <MFeldman@...> Date: Wed, 11 Aug 1999 18:00:58 -0400 Subject: Re: Babies and Basar B'chalav Two posters suggested that it might be a good idea to have separate trays for baby high chairs in order to separate milk and meat. I do not believe this to be common practice, and I believe that this is not required halachically for two reasons: 1. Rabbi Eliyahu D. Teitz pointed out that in order to have a mixture of milk and meat which creates a prohibition, they must have been "cooked" together, which on a practical level means that they were heated to the temperature of yad soledet bo--the temperature at which one's hand would recoil upon touching the object. Shmirat Shabbat K'hilchata quotes Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach as saying that this is no less than 45 degrees centigrade, i.e., 113 degrees Fahrenheit. Rav Forst, in Pitchei Halacha Hilchot Kashrut (which has been translated into English by Artscroll) quotes others as saying that the temperature is no less than 115 degrees. (I say "no less than" because it is possible that the temperature is much more than these numbers, but proof can be brought that less than these numbers do not constitute "cooking.") Since babies often touch food with their hands, parents are generally careful to ensure that the temperature of foods they serve their babies is not too hot to the touch, that is, not yad soledet bo. Even if a parent made a mistake and gave too-hot milchig food to the baby, so long as the parent does not make a mistake again within 24 hours and give too-hot meat to the baby, a forbidden mixture of basar b'chalav will not occur because of the rule of notein ta'am lifgam [food absorbed prior to 24 hours will not be able to inject its flavor into other foods]. Therefore, so long as parents make sure to thoroughly clean their babies' trays, there is no reason not to use a single tray. I would add to R. Teitz's analysis that even if the mistake happened twice within a 24 hour period, while we are generally stringent to forbid the hot food which touched a treif surface, it is probably not truly a non-kosher food, just that we are not willing to rely upon a non-Jew to taste the object [te'imat k'feila] to determine whether there was truly an imparting of taste. 2. Even in the rare circumstance where it turns out that the food is truly non-kosher, we need not worry. This is because, as Rabbi Simcha Bunim Cohen (who is a product of Lakewood) notes in his book "Children in Halachah" (an excellent book, which I highly recommend especially for the copious Hebrew footnotes and because he generally tells you of both stringent and lenient opinions), technically it is forbidden only to put treif food into the hands of a child under the age of chinuch [the age at which parents try to educate their children in the performance of mitzvot], but there is no prohibition if the child picks up the food with his own hands. The prohibition of putting a forbidden food into a child's hands derives from the pasuk "lo tochloom" (which deals with the eating of a rodent), which the rabbis in Yevamot 114 explained as "lo ta'achilum"--you shall not feed [foods] to them [i.e., to children]. [This prohibition is expanded to apply to directly causing a child to violate any prohibition.] See generally Shulchan Arukh O.C. 343. The age of chinuch for negative commandments is probably no earlier than the age of four (depending on the intellect of the particular child), though there is a view that it is 5 or 6. True, there is the mystical concept that dvarim hatmei'im mitamtimin et ha'lev v'gorem lo teva ra [non-kosher foods dull the heart and cause the child to have an evil nature], which is why ideally a baby should not suckle from a non-Jewish wet-nurse if a Jewish wet-nurse is available. See Shulchan Arukh Y.D. 81:7. However, since here there is only a small safek [doubtful chance] that the food is non-kosher, we should not have to worry about timtum ha'lev. With regard to waiting time between serving meat and serving milk to a child, Rabbi Simcha Bunim Cohen quotes the Debreciner Rav as follows: a. A child under the age of three may eat dairy products immediately after eating meat. The child's mouth should be externally cleaned of any meat residue. b. A child between 3 and 6 should wait, if possible, one hour after eating meat. c. A child who has reached the age of 6 should wait the full adult amount of time. However, if the child insists on eating dairy, one may be lenient and wait only 1 hour, providing that the child is less than 9 or 10. The child should rinse his mouth of all meat residue. Kol tuv, Moshe ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Rachel Rosencrantz <rachelr@...> Date: Thu, 12 Aug 1999 00:08:06 -0400 Subject: Explaining Yesh Mei'Ayin to a 6 year old >From: Steve Pudell <Gmachine9@...> >I knew that someone would object to my characterization of my daughter's >question as yesh mae'ayin. But to a certain extent that's what it was. >That is, she thinks that everything needs a creator. The fact that >Hashem always existed, is in fact, a problem of something coming from >nothing. We try to resolve this by positing that Hashem always existed >(whichwe believe He did). But, nonetheless, the problem my daughter had >with this is that while Hshem created the world, who created Hashem. Boy...my first response would be to learn "Shaar Ha Yichud vEmunah" (the second part of the Tanya by the Alter Rebbe) with her. However, she's 6 so I don't know that that's necessarily the best answer. The answer is that nothing created Hashem. Futhermore, even though everything that exists comes from Hashem (because there was nothing before but Hashem, so all somethings are in essence from Hashem) Hashem is not affected or even changed by the creations. One thing to think about is that "Who created Hashem" implies a "before Hashem". Hashem created time itself. There was no time "before" time was created. I think that it is very important _not_ to teach that Hashem is a case of Yesh M'ayin. There was no place to "poof" into and there was no "poof". He was, He is, and He will always be. At some point there is the something that created everything. Hashem is that something. I think you should ask her to trust you on it that Hashem was not created, and tell her that you two will learn more about it together. In any case, I recommend that you learn Tanya, and particularly Lessons in Tanya, because it talks about this in depth, and yet applies it in very practical ways. As you learn you can teach her more. You can get Lessons in Tanya from Kehot Publishers, they will ship it to you. Their phone is: 718-778-0226. For a study partner if there is Chabad near you give them a call. Hope this helps, Rachel ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Russell Hendel <rhendel@...> Date: Tue, 10 Aug 1999 01:22:04 -0400 (EDT) Subject: Further Comments about Forced Mishebayraches/Vows I recently suggested that a forced donation from a Mishebayrach creates no obligation for giving because a gift follows the PERCEIVED INTENT OF THE GIVER (Rambam Gifts 6:1) and the person only made the MiShebayrach to escape embarassment. Alex Hoppenheimer retorts that the particular Rambam I cited deals with a person who gives away his entire estate because he thougt he was dying;this would not apply to someone giving a small amount.Alex also cites the fact that a promise to give is a neder (Charity 8:1) and is like forcing someone to give a sacrifice (14:8). These are all answerable objections. Rabbi Bechoffer already pointed out that the person doesn't make the neder himself (someone else makes the MiShebayrach--all he has to do is not say Amen). Furthermore (Rambam Vows 4:1-2) explicitly says that Vows done for emphasis ("I vow not to eat by you"--so stop pestering me) or for sales ("I vow not to take less than $100") have no validity since he "didn't really intend to keep the vow." How does this differ from a person on a Bimah who is being embarassed in front of the whole shule if he donesn't give. I looked up Sacrifices 14:8 "Those who are liable to Offerings, we take it from them by force because they really want to" and do not see the relevance to the current situation. Finally although Gifts 6:1 does indeed speak about a person who "gave" his whole estate nevertheless the principle I mentioned applies to many cases (As I stated in my original posting). For example * If I send gifts to "my boys" then if there are female gifts among them (like jewelry) then then they go to the girls (Gifts 6:14) * A deathbed wish to give a daughter a $400 present for her Ketuvah is interpreted as a $200 present if the local custom is to exagerate by doubling * A deathbed wish to give my children $100 a week is interpretd as $2-300 if that is what they need (The person used a $100 to indicate to be thrifty) (Gifts 11:21,23--note deathbed wishes are like "deeded gifts"). Finally if Rabbi Bechoffer brought in his synagogue experiences I should bring in my actuarial experiences...In practice way under 50% of even Yom Kippur donations are ever sent in (or so people have told me). Such a statistic helps justify the "he didn't really mean it" interpretation. Russell Hendel; Moderator Rashi is simple; http://www.shamash.org/rashi/ ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Isaac A Zlochower <zlochoia@...> Date: Tue, 10 Aug 1999 23:20:09 -0400 Subject: Re: Slavery and a higher morality The topic of the morality of slavery is basically a subtopic on the existence of a morality outside of halacha. Is there a requirement to go outside the limits of halacha in accordance with our own sense of right and wrong? Are we intitled to our own subjective moral judgements? Is slavery in an halachic framework morally wrong today or in some ideal future? There are those who appear to believe that things permitted by the Torah and the talmudic sages are morally correct, by definition. Our subjective notions of morality and those of society are irrelevant, in this view. Since slavery under some conditions was permitted by the Torah and the oral law, then they view it as morally acceptable now or in the future. Others are less sanguine about reintroducing slavery today, but seem to have no problems with such an innovation in an ideal future. I am troubled by this attitude. Are the proponents of a strictly legalistic morality not bothered by the talmudic category of "a scoundrel with the sanction of the torah" or the very idea of acting "outside the letter of the law" or the statement by the leading Amora, Rav that mitzvot were given to refine people? The latter sage was also the one who ordered his disciple to pay the wages of hired porters despite the monetary loss they caused by dropping a wine barrel at the end of a hard day of work. Is that the halacha, the disciple asked incredulously? Yes, Rav answered, it falls under the biblical command of doing what is good and proper before G-D! What is good and proper is not explicitly defined in the Torah. It depends, instead, on a sensitivity to what G-D really expects of us. That is necessarily a subjective matter. The parameters of acting beyond the strict requirements of halacha are also undefined and subjective. One principle that is very relevant in discussions on slavery that is not beyond the requirements of the law, but is, rather, a key halachic requirement is the idea of avoiding a desecration of G-D's name. How, then, can one speak in a public forum of the possibility or even desirability of reintroducing slavery, when such ideas have been rejected outright as cruel and ignoble by the greater society? When the nations become enlightened by the Torah in Messianic times, are they to reintroduce slavery and go" from a greater sanctity to a lesser one"? Is the auction block for slaves to reappear again? The Torah sanctioned slavery in biblical times under strict rules designed to ameliorate the lot of a slave, particularly a Hebrew slave. Slavery was then considered an economic necessity. What legitimate function could it have now or in the future? The idea of using servanthood to rehabilitate a Jewish thief who cannot repay his theft is a nice thought which does not fit very well with the fact that the master (who is not required to have any training in Torah or social work) can force the servant to live with his gentile maid and produce offspring who are born into slavery. Nor does it account for the oral law which excludes Jewish women from such servitude for theft ("his theft, not her theft"). Certainly, the current penal system is little concerned with rehabilitation. I would like to think that in a more ideal society a truly rehabilitative system could be developed. Concerning selling oneself as a servant out of poverty, I would hope that in a Messianic age, a better solution to poverty could be found such as job training and placement. There are other examples of things permitted by the Torah that can hardly be called good and proper in some absolute sense, such as a father selling his minor daughter as a servant, or bringing a captive woman back from war, or polygamy. Here the Torah seeks the best way of handling bad situations under the conditions of the times. There is little point in creating laws that will not be observed. In the patriarchal society that existed in biblical times and long after, a father's authority was considered near absolute. If a father could not legally sell his daughter to someone who might treat her better, then he might turn her out into the street and to prostitution. If a soldier could not bring home a captive woman under certain rules designed to allow him to come to his senses and to prevent abuse, then he might well act according to impulse. If polygamy was generally practiced by "important" or wealthy men - including some of the patriarchs (Abraham and Jacob - under extenuating circumstances) then how could the Torah prohibit it? Instead, the Torah acknowledges human weaknesses and the mores of the society, but strives to guide the people of the covenant to a lifestyle that can become the model for all peoples to emulate. In doing so, it sets out guiding principles such as the good and proper actions cited above, the verse near the beginning of Genesis about a man attaching himself to his wife to form single, intimate unit (not possible in a polygamous relationship), always keeping in mind how we felt as slaves in Egypt, and emulating G-D. The idea of striving to go beyond the requirements of halacha is a key feature of both the Hassidic and Mussar movements. The senior Rabbi in my community told of a talk given by the "Chofetz Chaim", a revered figure in recent European history, in which he disparaged those who contend that they observe halachic requirements to the letter, and ranked them akin to the table in front of him. I also heard the late Rosh Yeshiva of Ner Israel, Rav Ya'akov Weinberg, speak of someone who observes only the letter of the law as akin to a gentile who has taken on "the yoke of heaven". We can do better. Yitzchok Zlochower ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 29 Issue 53