Volume 35 Number 68 Produced: Tue Nov 20 6:17:37 US/Eastern 2001 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Above-Ground Burial [Joyce Wertheimer] Avelus and Wedding [Wendy Baker] Bible explicitly says God has no body!!!!(Not Rambam) [Stan Tenen] The "Body" of G-d [Bill Bernstein] Grape Juice (2) [David Charlap, Avi Feldblum] Hosting marriageable boy/girlfriends [The Benjamins] Mikva shampoo [Freda B Birnbaum] Pesach and Spring [Michael J. Savitz] Rachel tending sheep [Joel Rich] Tune of Ma'oz Tzur [<jam390@...>] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Joyce Wertheimer <joyce_ellen_w@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 07:55:29 -0800 (PST) Subject: Above-Ground Burial I recently attended a funeral for a non-observant Jewish person. Instead of in-ground burial, the coffin was interned in an above-ground crypt, after ceremonial sprinkling of dirt on the coffin. What are the halachic issues related to above-ground burial? ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Wendy Baker <wbaker@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 10:42:57 -0500 (EST) Subject: Re: Avelus and Wedding I am no authority, but have an interesting historical view on this. In May of 1926 my parents were married only a few days after my mother's grandfather was niftar. They were told not to postpone the wedding and that her mother(the mourner) could attend but should leave the room during any music. This was in Brooklyn NY. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Stan Tenen <meru1@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 09:42:54 -0500 Subject: Re:Bible explicitly says God has no body!!!!(Not Rambam) At 07:21 AM 11/19/01, Ralph Zwier wrote: >From: Ralph Zwier <silver@...> >I would take issue with Russell on this verse and similar passages >esp. the second commandment. In ALL these passages the Torah words >itself oddly: "You SAW no image ..." "You shall not make an image". It >does not actually say that G-d does not have an image. There is a kind of "image" of God. We're told that we're made in the image of God, but no one explains how this could be so, except the Kabbalists. The Kabbalists propose that Adam Kadmon is the archetypal human. Adam Kadmon is identified with the sephirotic Tree, which descends from God. The 10 spherot are 10 aspects of the Singularity of God, as they appear to us. (What is undifferentiated in 13-D has 1-distinction in 12-D, 2-distinctions in 11-D.....and 10-distinctions in 3-D. These are the spherot.) If you'd like to see a technical reconstruction of the tzelem Hashem in the form of Adam Kadmon, overlaid on the sephirotic Tree, go to <http://www.meru.org/priv/AdamKadmonDraft.html>. This model is _literally_ drawn by the letter-sequences at the beginning of B'reshit. There are several important reasons why we don't consider an image of God. One is mathematical, which I don't want to go into here. The other is practical. The Christians identify J with Adam Kadmon, and thus they conclude that J is the "second Adam", and thus a divine image of God. We don't want to get sucked into this anthropomorphizing, because it is so extreme as to be almost always misleading. (It's misled about a billion people so far. <sad smile>) >The Chumash itself leaves open the question of whether there IS or ISN'T >a physical body. > >Similarly, the Chumash itself uses parts of the body in descriptions of >G-d's actions apparently without any sense of difficulty or >problem. Only later do we need commentators to reassure us that these >passages are not to be taken literally. AFAIK there is no passage in >Chumash which clearly says that G-d's arm, finger, hand and so on are to >be taken metaphorically. There's a simple explanation. We name the animals by virtue of the character and behavior-traits they're known for. So, we call a horse, a "sus", because Samek-Vav-Samek means "to do/work," and "to sustain". This fits the description of a horse as the means of carrying us (sustaining us), and as doing farm work. We also name people this way. We call a person who does carpentry, "Mr. Carpenter". We call a person who comes from Krakow, "Krakower". It's natural for humans to delineate functions by comparison with the functions of other living creatures, including their occupation and the place they're identified with. We do the same with aspects of the Unity of God when we need to discuss them. Mr. Krakower doesn't own, and isn't the same as, Krakow. Mr. Krakower doesn't have an appendage in the form of a city. The anthropomorphisms that we use for God are simply ways by which we know these traits. We express our conscious will by pointing to what we want, with our hands. Thus, we refer to God's Will as God's Hand. In fact, the word "hand" and the word "will" are near-synonymous in this context. This does not mean that God chooses to take away our free will (which contradicts a physical expression of God) by showing physical hands. >It seems to me that from the Chumash alone one could hold that G-d has >an image so long as we do not represent it in any way. Actually, this is not so. But it takes math (for me) to explain this as I understand it. In a simple sense, it's logically inconsistent for God to be "jealous", and to have a physical image -- outside of abstract Kabbalistic or mathematical idealizations. If you'd like to see the some of the math for this, ask. Best, Stan Meru Foundation http://www.meru.org <meru1@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Bill Bernstein <bbernst@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 08:49:00 -0600 Subject: Re: The "Body" of G-d We have had a number of postings on this subject and I am still bothered by the original one. The original post, as I recall, postulated that the Ralbag held that G-d had a body and that many other medieval Jewish philosophers held so too. What disturbed me was that apparantly not one person on this board, myself included, had any way to check the veracity of the original statement. If someone had made a similar claim about the Rambam he would, of course, be laughed off the board, since many of us learn at least Mishna Torah or have it at home. In fact, I went and asked Dr. Lenn Goodman here at Vanderbilt, and he is an authority on medieval Jewish philosophy, about this. He tells me that he is certain that the Ralbag did not believe this, nor did any major Jewish philosopher. But the bothersome part is that the whole field of Jewish philosophy has fallen out of our curriculum. When was the last time anyone learned Ralbag, the sefer Ikkarim of Joseph Albo, or Crescas? When was the last time anyone referred to them? Could you even order these seforim from, say, Eichlers? I would like to see a discussion on why we don't learn these things anymore, and whether we should. Bill Bernstein Nashville TN. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: David Charlap <shamino3@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 12:23:17 -0500 Subject: Re: Grape Juice Wendy Baker wrote: > > Just a historical note here. In my youth in the 1940's and 50's > everyone drank Welch's grape juice and ate grape jelly and didn't use > grape juice for kiddush. Now it's quite the other way. What > happened? I asked my rabbi about this several years ago.. According to him, halachic opinion is not uniform regarding the status of un-fermented grape juice. Some hold that it must be supervised like wine, and some hold that it does not have to be. The reasoning is due to the reasoning we require wine to be supervised in the first place. Wine is used by nearly every religion around the world for ritual purposes. If a Jew drinks wine that has been dedicated to another god, it is considered avoda zara (idolatry). In order to avoid this possibility, Jewish law requires that wine be supervised by observant Jews from the time of the pressing to the time the bottle is sealed - in order to make sure that it could never possibly be sanctified to a foreign god. (And just in case anybody believes that this is an outdated concept, there are some commercial wineries even today where a Christian priest is on-staff to bless every cask produced. My rabbi said that in the recent past (he's not sure about now), the Gallo wineries did this.) Anyway, the status of whether grape juice requires such supervision ties directly in to its usability for ritual purposes. If grape juice is OK for use for kiddush and havdala, then it is like wine and requires similar supervision. If it does not require supervision, then it may not be used for ritual purposes. Today, due to concerns about alcoholism, most rabbis permit the use of grape juice for kiddush and havdala. But because of this, they must now require that the grape juice be supervised just like wine. There are still rabbis who don't require supervision for grape juice, but those rabbis will require that actual wine be used for kiddush and havdala, because both decisions derive from the same source. > Another historical change-For Pesach, everyone used peanut oil. Now I > am told not to use it. Again, what happened? I suspect that this is based on a misunderstanding of what a peanut is, that was later corrected. The ban on kitniyot (and derivatives thereof) applies to beans, peas, legumes, etc. It does not apply to nuts. It was a commonly-held belief in the recent past that peanuts were nuts. But this was, in fact, not true. Peanuts are legumes, not nuts. As a result, the fall under the ban against kitniyot. Once people realized their mistake, they had no choice but to follow it to its logical conclusion. The law did not change, but new facts changed its applicability. -- David ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avi Feldblum <mljewish@...> Date: Tue, 20 Nov 2001 05:49:24 -0500 (EST) Subject: Re: Grape Juice On Mon, 19 Nov 2001, David Charlap wrote: > Wendy Baker wrote: > > Another historical change-For Pesach, everyone used peanut oil. Now I > > am told not to use it. Again, what happened? > > I suspect that this is based on a misunderstanding of what a peanut is, > that was later corrected. > > The ban on kitniyot (and derivatives thereof) applies to beans, peas, > legumes, etc. It does not apply to nuts. I believe that the above in not correct. The question revolves around the parenthesis above. It was known that peanuts were legumes, (and were legumes that were not in the original decree) the question was whether derivities (as opposed to mixures) of legumes were to be treated the same as legumes. When I was growing up, I remember that peanut oil was considered OK since it was a derivitive product that was not in the original decree. Nothing has changed in our knowledge of what peanut oil is. Avi Feldblum <mljewish@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: The Benjamins <benjams@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 19:26:02 +0200 Subject: Hosting marriageable boy/girlfriends I'm curious regarding guidlines you may have heard/experienced regarding limitations regarding hosting a marriageable aged child's (opposite sex) boy/girlfriend over night (with the child present). Would there be a distinction between pre-engaged vs. engaged couple? This regards the home being occupied by other family members, as well. May we all be zocheh to celebrate happy occasions. B. Benjamin ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Freda B Birnbaum <fbb6@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 12:08:24 -0500 (EST) Subject: re: Mikva shampoo In v35n65, Louise Miller asks: > I had always believed that any shampoo that does not contain > conditioner was ok for pre-tevilah hair-washing. Our local mikva has > become rather strict about it (to "S.S": since you left, it hasn't > been the same...) and they will only allow Johnson's Baby shampoo > which makes my hair feel dirtier than it started, and Georgi wig > shampoo. > > Anyone know any other brands of shampoo I can talk them into, and just > what it is about normal shampoo that is unacceptable? Okay, I've been out of the loop on this for a while, but I don't recall either of the mikvas I used regularly making an issue of this, and both of them are run by heavy-duty serious people. I recall that they supplied stuff, so I guess it was stuff that was "okay", but I don't recall anyone policing what you brought (although I used the stuff that was there, so I guess it never came up). Is there really an issue about hair conditioner?! Maybe you shouldn't tell me.... though it's all moot now anyway... Is this part of everything getting tighter nowadays, or is it just something I missed? (I'm not into makeup and stuff so it's quite possible...) > Louise (The Friz) Miller Freda "been there, done that, don't ask, don't tell" Birnbaum ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael J. Savitz <msavitz@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 07:18:00 -0800 (PST) Subject: Pesach and Spring Following up on the discussion in MJ 35-65 on when Pesach falls out vis-a-vis the vernal equinox: It appears that Pesach always falls out after the equinox, by a comfortable margin of a few days (March 26 being the earliest example anyone could cite). However, there seem to be some examples of Pesach falling out too _late_, i.e. more than a full month after the equinox, with _Purim_ (which is generally a day _before_ the full moon) falling out in the spring. E.g. Purim 5746 was on March 25, 1986, Purim 5757 was on March 23, 1997, and Purim 5760 was on March 21, 2000 (and in 5749 was on March 21, 1989). Assuming the equinox fell out on March 20 or 21 in these years, then these seem to be counterexamples to the proposition that Pesach always corresponds to the first full moon following the equinox. So it appears that Pesach can fall out as early as March 26 (e.g. 2013) and as late as April 24 (e.g. 1986), a span of 30 days in the Gregorian calendar, which is a few days later than the first month after the equinox. It would be interesting to know how this came about - perhaps chaza"l instituted a 5-day "cushion" in case of doubt regarding the equinox, to ensure that Pesach was in fact celebrated in the spring, as required. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <Joelirich@...> (Joel Rich) Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 08:19:59 EST Subject: Rachel tending sheep A more basic question can be found in Bereishit 29:11 Where Yaakov Avinu KISSES Rachel Imeinu well before any dating or marriage plans. As with the prior thread there are midrashic explanations as to why this was acceptable. The issue that I think a lot about in Bereishit is why present the "stories", which according to chazal were meant to transmit the ethical attributes of our forefathers in a way that simple halachik rules could not, in a way that one must often turn away from the simple understanding of the text. Somehow the answer "those who want to misunderstand will do so anyway" is not entirely satisfying to me. Any thoughts? KT Joel Rich ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <jam390@...> Date: Mon, 19 Nov 2001 10:52:38 -0500 Subject: Tune of Ma'oz Tzur A while back, someone told me that one of the popular niggunim for Ma'oz Tzur (the only one that I've ever heard, actually) is taken from a tune used for a church hymn. I don't know how to explain the tune that I'm referring to through text, but has anyone heard this before, to confirm or debunk? Thanks. ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 35 Issue 68