Volume 40 Number 13 Produced: Wed Jul 16 22:59:42 US/Eastern 2003 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Conversion [Janet Rosenbaum] Danger and driving [Yehonatan and Randy Chipman] Halacha and Danger [<rubin20@...>] How to Name (4) [Elazar M Teitz, Harry Weiss, David Ziants, Martin D. Stern] How we discuss machlokes [Mordechai Horowitz] LAW TO MOSES AS SINAI--two meanings [Russell J Hendel] Levi-in-doubt pidyon [Gershon Dubin] Organ donation [Michael Feldstein] Shiluach Hakan [Joseph Tabory] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Janet Rosenbaum <jerosenb@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 22:23:34 -0400 (EDT) Subject: Conversion Aryeh Levine <aryehdl@...> writes: > The Rambam rules (Hilchot Issurei Bi'ah, 13:17) that b'diavad one whose > reason for conversion was not examined, and who was converted in front > of three laymen (i.e. not talmidei chachamim) is still Jewish. Although > it seems that one might argue that he is referring to three scholars > without smicha, Berkovitz rejects this interperetation. In addition, > the Ri"f (Rav Alfasi) on Yevamot 45b says that bediavad (if one has > already acted) one is Jewish even when the conversion is not done in > front of a court. He apparently holds that the p'sukim brought in the > gemara requiring a court are only asmachtot, and the requirement of a > beit din is only Rabbinic in origin. As such, it is only a lechatchila > (before one acts; the ideal obligation) requirement. These passages remind me of a footnote in Marc Shapiro's book on the Sridei Eish, _Between the Yeshiva World and Modern Orthodoxy_ in which he indicated that the Rav and the Sridei Eish accepted Reform conversions in some cases. Does anyone know anything more about these cases? Janet ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Yehonatan and Randy Chipman <yonarand@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 21:57:51 +0300 Subject: Re: Danger and driving Re: the various responses about the dangers involved in driving: No one has mentioned that the danger of an accident is at least in part a function of the caution exercised by the driver himself. Virtually every serious accident is caused by reckless or foolish behavior on the part of one driver or another. Hence, one can reduce the danger to oneself and one's passengers by always following the rules of road safety (which includes proper maintenance of one's car, not drinking and driving, etc.). I recently had cause to see the tragic results of this from close up. Of course, there is always the danger that one may be the victim of a careless and irresponsible driver, of whom there are many on the roads, certainly here in Israel, but by driving safely one can greatly reduce the danger of fatal accident to oneself -- in my guess-timate, by around 50%. In this connection, I am always reminded of a case that took place eighteen years ago when, on the way home from the Baba Sali's funeral, four Haredi men from B'nai Berak were killed in a head-on collision. This incident greatly shocked the religious community; particularly as all of the victims were heads of large families, and over thirty children were left orphans as a result of this accident; the rabbis and rashei yeshivah called a ta'anit tzibbur. This accident occurred on a two-lane road, while the driver was trying to pass a slower car without adequate visibility of the oncoming lane. A momentary act of impatience and carelessness led to this tragedy, which clearly could have been averted by the exercise of common sense and patience. It's strange that the rabbis spoke about doing teshuvah, but no one seemed to have mentioned that drivers need to internalize the rules of safe driving and to think about what they're doing. The Rambam says taht, alongside believing in Gd's hashgahah, we also have to understand the rules of natural causality operating in the world, and that many troubles are brought upon people by their own imprudent actions. Yehonatan Chipman ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <rubin20@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 10:47:17 -0400 Subject: Re: Halacha and Danger > I'm not sure I understand what this means. Suppose we decide to play > a game of Russian Roulette with a six-shooter. A third party agrees > to load the gun and that furthermore, 5% of the time, he won't put in > a bullet at all (using a random number generator or icosahedral die to > determine the 5%). As I calculate it, the odds of injury on any given > shot in this game are less than 16%. Would R. Zilberstein allow us to > play it? I think he would allow one to play it if he had a reason for doing so. The halacha is one my place oneself in danger to earn a livelihood. That is probably the 16% threshold, more than that is probably a no no, even for parnasha etc/ ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Elazar M Teitz <remt@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 09:34:58 -0400 Subject: Re: How to Name >I wonder if anyone has any knowledgeable answers to the following issue: >Ploni has a Jewish mother and non-Jewish father. How do you call Ploni >to the Torah for an aliyah? What I usually hear is Ploni ben Avrohom. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 139:3) states that in the case of a child whose father is unknown, he is called by his maternal grandfather's name, and the case of a non-Jewish father would seem analagous, since halachically there is no father. However, the Taz in his commentary (also quoted in the Mishnah B'rurah) says not to do so, since it can lead to halachic pitfalls, and says that Avraham should be used, and that is indeed the common custom. >But the Gemoro in Baba Metzia mentions an amora and calls him Ploni bar >Plonis, using his mother's name. Rashi explains that his father was a >non-Jew. But I have never heard of anyone doing this in everyday life. Perhaps not in everyday life, but that is exactly how the name is written in a get. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Harry Weiss <hjweiss@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 10:45:32 -0700 (GMT) Subject: Re: How to Name As a gabbai, I was told to call someone using his maternal grandfather's name. I know someone, whose maternal grandfather also was not Jewish and did not remember the maternal great grandfather's name, so he asked we use his mother's name. When a person gives me a name, I don't question it further unless it appears inappropriate. (Obviously I use only the fathers name when given both.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: David Ziants <dziants@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 21:54:25 +0300 Subject: Re: How to Name When the mother is Jewish, an accepted practice that I was told is to use the form: Ploni(t) ben/bat the mother's father's name (= maternal grandfather) ; whereas the form "Ploni(t) ben/bat Avraham" is more suitable for a ger/gioret. In my opinion, using the ben/bat Avraham form could even be an insult for the case when the mother is Jewish, as we have a way of linking someone born Jewish by his Jewish lineage, whereas ben/bat Avraham is used for a ger/gioret because Avraham Avinu is known as the "father of all gerim". > But the Gemoro in Baba Metzia mentions an amora and calls him Ploni bar > Plonis, using his mother's name. Rashi explains that his father was a > non-Jew. But I have never heard of anyone doing this in everyday life. I can't imagine that this gemarra is accepted as halacha, because we would be drawing attention to the person's personal situation publicly every time he receives an aliya or is mentioned in a "mi sheberach", thus causing a potential embarrassment. David Ziants <dziants@...> Ma'aleh Adumim, Israel ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <MDSternM7@...> (Martin D. Stern) Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 07:24:48 EDT Subject: Re: How to Name I heard a girl, whose mother had conceived her from a non-Jewish father, given a name in this form in shul by a relative. The whole affair would have been rather embarassing but, thankfully, most people did not notice the odd name. Martin D. Stern 7, Hanover Gardens, Salford M7 4FQ, England +44 (0) 161-740-2745 email <mdsternm7@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mordechai Horowitz <mordechai@...> Date: Wed, 16 Jul 2003 08:18:36 -0400 Subject: How we discuss machlokes >Avi writes regarding the Revadim controversy > >[I look forward to hearing a non-partisan account of the controversy >involved, and would be happy to host discussion on the list of it's >value as a teaching tool etc. I am not sure to what extent I would allow >a discussion of the "personalities" involved. I will say clearly that >the people involved, as well as the people they looked to for guidance, >are shomrei Torah and yirea shomayim (followers of Torah and Halacha and >people with proper fear of Heaven). The statements from some who are >quoted in the Ha'Aretz article that indicate otherwise are simply and >totally false. I will end my partisan account with that statement. Avi >Feldblum] Avi brings up a major problem in discussing issues within the Torah community, is that all too often the automatic response to disagreeing with a persons shita is to degrade the observance of the "other" It's not a new issue, we can see this in Rav Shach's attacks on Rav Steinsaltz, The Rebbe, Rav Riskin et al. Attacks by the "charedi" community on MO and religious zionism (see anything on shemayisrael.com) The issue exists in earlier generations as well, the best known example being the Mitnagdish Chassidic disputes of the 19th century. A good topic is how to recognize when a dispute is like that between Shammai and Hillel and when it is between Korah and his followers. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Russell J Hendel <rjhendel@...> Date: Mon, 14 Jul 2003 22:30:44 -0400 Subject: LAW TO MOSES AS SINAI--two meanings Shlomo (v40n7) in commenting on my posting on Biblical drash calls the prohibition of allowing male Moabite converts to marry full fledged Jewesses (I accept his correction) -- he calls this law a "law given to Moses at Sinai". It seems to me that the phrase "law given to Moses at Sinai" has two distinct meanings. On the one had it can refer to any law with Mosaic authority(See Avoth Chapter 1 Mishnah 1). On the other hand it also has a very narrow meaning-- it refers to laws with Mosaic authority which however cannot be derived from the Biblical text. These include for example laws such as (a) measurements--eg human adulthood begins at puberty (b) laws of tefillin--squareness, blackness etc There are only a few dozen such laws. This is the position of the Rambam. His introduction to his commentary on the Mishnah tractate of Beracoth contains a thorough discussion on the 5 categories of Jewish law and a careful definition of each one. Finally to defend Shlomos minor modification of my posting (that Male moabites are not prohibited from converting but rather are prohibited from marrying full fledged Jewesses) we need only contrast the explicit Biblical texts: Dt23-04 vs Dt23-08. One text prohibits "coming into the nation" forever (to moabites) while the other verse prohibits Egyptians "coming into the nation" until the 3rd generations. This implies that "coming into the nation" refers to marriage not to conversion. Russell Jay Hendel; http://www.RashiYomi.com/ ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Gershon Dubin <gershon.dubin@...> Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2003 19:37:01 GMT Subject: Levi-in-doubt pidyon From: <gasher@...> (A. M. Goldstein) <<If there is a safek (doubt) about one's being of Levi lineage, should a first-born boy (bachor) in this family line have a pidyon ha-ben [redemption of first-born-male ceremony]>> Shulchan Aruch treats a case where twins, a boy and a girl, are born of a woman who never gave birth before, but nobody knows whether the boy was first and hence a bechor, or the girl and there is no bechor. The halacha is, hamotzi mechavero alav haraya: the burden of proof is on the kohen, and since he is obviously no more capable of knowing than us, there's no pidyon haben. Your case is similar; you need to realize that an un-redeemed bechor is a perfectly fine Jew, except that there is a monetary debt to kohanim (at large; not to any one kohen).I.e., he's not blemished in any way if, needing to have a pidyon, he in fact did not because of this rule. When the principle of hamotzi mechavero alav haraya applies, there is no "defect" in NOT performing the pidyon; as you would not in your case. Of course, CYLOR. Gershon <gershon.dubin@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <MIKE38CT@...> (Michael Feldstein) Date: Wed, 16 Jul 2003 07:06:19 EDT Subject: Organ donation > I actually just researched this topic for a friend. I found a collection > of resources on a web site from the Halakhic Organ Donor Association at > http://www.imjl.com/hoda/hoda-links.htm > > I especially suggest reading the article from the Jewish Law Journal on > "brain death" at http://www.jlaw.com/Articles/brain.html > Janice For an even more extensive list of articles and resources on the subject, the Halachic Organ Donor Society (HODS) should also be checked out. http://hods.org/pages/Articles.asp Michael Feldstein Stamford, CT (and member of the board of HODS) ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Joseph Tabory <taborj@...> Date: Wed, 16 Jul 2003 00:16:11 +0200 Subject: RE: Shiluach Hakan We can find several trends among the poskim. The chasam sofer rules that this mizva is basically a cruel one and one should not do it unless one needs the eggs. Some kabbalistim accepted the idea that is an act of cruelty but they maintained that making the mother cry over the loss of her offspring arouses the zaar of the shechina over the exile of Israel. A full discussion of all the attitudes may be found in my article on this published in the jubilee schrift for Rabbi Emanuel Rackman. Kol tuv ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 40 Issue 13