Volume 44 Number 88 Produced: Tue Sep 21 5:49:16 EDT 2004 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Bishul Akum for Sephardim [Stephen Phillips] Does science detract from religion? [Leah S. Gordon] Following the minhagim of the husband [Ari Trachtenberg] Footnote to Rashei [Baruch J. Schwartz] Hallel on Yomym Neorym [<chips@...>] Minyan=10 [Joel Rich] Nidah (Family Purity) Books [Aliza Berger] Nusach [Saul Stokar] Opening Of The Ark During Chazoras Ha'Shatz [Immanuel Burton] Rabbeinu Tam Tefillin [Saul Mashbaum] Yiddish [Frank Silbermann] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Stephen Phillips <admin@...> Date: Mon, 20 Sep 2004 12:03:13 +0100 Subject: Re: Bishul Akum for Sephardim > From: Chana Luntz <Chana@...> > The basis of his logic is that it is sfek sfeka [double uncertainty]. > Firstly, the halacha may be like the Rashba who holds that there is no > bishul akum problem for workers in the house of a yisroel (which is what > these hotels are deemed to be - query whether a caterer is the same) and > secondly the halacha may be like the Ashkenazim who hold that lighting a > fire is enough, and therefore given that bishul akum is only rabbinic, a > sfek sfeka, even against Maran! is enough to make it mutar l'chatchila > [permissable up front] (although a baal nefesh would presumably be > machmir [strict]. I have found on more than one occasion that Rav Ovadyia Yosef paskens against a clear psak of the Mechaber of the Shulchan Aruch on the basis of a sfek sfeka. I seem to recall he did this when permitting water from the Galilee (which had bread dropped into it by fishermen) to be drunk on Pesach. Does he have some sort of policy on such matters? He usually treats the Mechaber as the Moreh D'Asra [Rabbinic Authority] of Eretz Yisroel. Stephen Phillips ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Leah S. Gordon <leah@...> Date: Sat, 18 Sep 2004 20:04:16 -0700 Subject: Does science detract from religion? Noyekh Miller writes, in part, about attempts to explain Yaakov's animal breeding: "but of perplexity ('What's wrong with the account as it stands Why gild the lily?'). I was taught the story when I was 5 or 6, illustrated by my melamed with the aid of a pointed stick. I thought it was a wonderful story then and I think it's a wonderful story today. It gains nothing in my eyes when it's suggested that Yankev Ovinu was a geneticist avant la lettre. "For what it's worth, I hold with the by-now dated idea that faith and science exist in parallel universes. Neither has the slightest bearing on the other. We are free to move back and forth between the two but we try in vain to make the two worlds one, to resolve contradictions." I have heard people make this kind of claim before, often artists or philosophers, who claim that to understand the science e.g. of a sunset, somehow detracts from the aesthetic experience of its beauty. I have also heard this kind of religion-incompatible-with-science statement from very religious Christians. But, it is my strong belief that science, logic, and reason are completely compatible with Torah Judaism, and that scientific understanding enhances belief and practice for many people (including me). --Leah ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ari Trachtenberg <trachten@...> Date: Mon, 20 Sep 2004 10:01:27 -0400 Subject: Re: Following the minhagim of the husband >From: Akiva Miller <kennethgmiller@...> >But in cases of conflict, the wife must give primary consideration to >her husband, whereas the husband must treat his wife as secondary to his >parents. I haven't seen any proof text for the second part of this statement. To the contrary, Bereshit states "as such, man shall leave his father and his mother and join to his wife ..." Best, Ari Trachtenberg, Boston University http://people.bu.edu/trachten mailto:<trachten@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Baruch J. Schwartz <schwrtz@...> Date: Mon, 20 Sep 2004 14:44:02 +0300 Subject: Footnote to Rashei Since I did not follow the discussion on rashei (sic!) all that closely, I beg everyone's pardon if the following point was already brought up: In the rishon aliya of Vezot Ha-beracha, the word rashei occurs (Deut 33:5). Since it has a conjunctive accent (a munah) and is followed by a monosyllabic word ('am), its stress is retracted (nasog ahor) and the accent is on the first syllable (RAshei instead of the usual raSHEI). The presence of an accent mark on this syllable is conclusive and incontrovertible evidence that the qamatz is gadol and not qatan. A qamatz qatan never--I repeat, never--receives an accent, conjunctive or disjunctive, even for reasons of stress retraction. [It also never comes in an open syllable (Resh+qamatz followed by a quiescent Aleph). I presume that others have already pointed this out.] Of course, these indications, while conclusive, are technical. The etymological, historical explanation has, I hope, been provided by the others who have contributed to the discussion and who have correctly refuted the idea that this word might have a qamatz qatan. [See also Gesenius Hebrew Grammar, para. 23c]. Baruch Schwartz Department of Bible Hebrew University of Jerusalem ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <chips@...> Date: Sun, 19 Sep 2004 17:27:13 -0700 Subject: Hallel on Yomym Neorym Where are the sources that discuss this issue? -rp ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <Joelirich@...> (Joel Rich) Date: Sun, 19 Sep 2004 20:15:15 EDT Subject: Minyan=10 This question came up and I quoted the talmud that the source of the requirement of 10 was the 10 spies. I always wondered why such a seemingly negative source was used. I recently came across an insight from The Rav (R' YD Soloveitchick) with regard to why Avraham stopped negotiating at 10 righteous people in Sodom. The Rav felt (per R' Mozeson in "Echoes of the Song of the Nightingale") that this was because 10 must have been the minimum social unit that could effect change in society. It occurs to me that this explains the source of a minyan as the spies beautifully. What group changed the history of the Jewish people more than they? Of course the lesson is that we need to try to effect change as well, but positive change. Gmar Chatima Tova, Joel Rich ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Aliza Berger <alizadov@...> Date: Sun, 19 Sep 2004 11:08:07 +0200 Subject: Nidah (Family Purity) Books Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> wrote: <<<...the positions set out in the book--all set out as cut and dried, on such issues as tzniyut, taharat hamishpacha, dating, and women's hair covering fall somewhere between the Taliban and the ayatollahs, advocating at one point that married women cover their faces. My friend, who by Israeli standards is on the left fringe of Orthodoxy (she wears pants, for example) is concerned that this will turn off her daughter to religious Judaism. Can anyone suggest a book (in Hebrew) that deals with these issues in a more modern, balanced way?>>> I have not seen the book, but you might try: Knohl, Elyashiv. Ish Vi-Isha, Zakhu Shekhinah Beineihem: Pirkei Hadrakhah Lichatan Vikalah. Yishivat Hakibbutz Hadati and Tzohar: Jerusalem, 2003 Tzohar is a group that tries to make Jewish rituals "user-friendly" for the secular Israeli population. Tzohar's Web site is http://www.kipa.co.il/tzohar/ In addition, Haviva Ner-David, a modern Orthodox scholar currently completing her dissertation on an aspect of niddah, is planning to write such a book in the next couple of years. Sincerely, Aliza Aliza Berger, PhD - Director English Editing: editing-proofreading.com Statistics Consulting: statistics-help.com ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Saul Stokar <dp22414@...> Date: Mon, 20 Sep 2004 12:54:58 +0200 Subject: Nusach In a recent posting (vol 44 issue 82) on the subject of changes in the established "Nusach" Orrin Tilevitz commented that "Change tends to cheapen. The author of a fairly recent article in Conservative Judaism on, I think, Jewish responses to 9/11 describes how in her Manhattan synagogue, on the shabbat following 9/11 they sang Lecha Dodi to EliTzion, which mourns the destruction of the beit hamikdash." I have a hard time understanding this specific example. When referring to the institution of the Fast of Gedaliah (3 Tishrei) to commemorate the murder of Gedalia the Talmud (T.B. Rosh Hashana 18b) comments "This (i.e. the fact that we fast for the death of an individual as well as for the destruction of the Temples) teaches us that the death of the righteous is similar (or equivalent/equal ?) to the burning of the house of our Lord" (see http://www.e-daf.com/daf.asp?mesechta=9&daf=18b, third wide line). I'm sure that more than one of the people murdered on 9/11 merits the description of "righteous" and, if so, what's the problem of using the Tisha B'Av melody to commemorate/mourn their untimely death. It seems to me that this specific example transcends the Conservative/Orthodox divide over the limits of legitimate change. Saul Stokar ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Immanuel Burton <IBURTON@...> Date: Mon, 20 Sep 2004 09:17:56 +0100 Subject: Opening Of The Ark During Chazoras Ha'Shatz At the Shul which I went to this Rosh Hashanah (Hendon United Synagogue, Raleigh Close, London, UK), the Ark was opened for the phrases "Zochraynu le'chaim" and "Mi chomochoh av ho'rachamim" in the Reader's repetition. Has anyone seen this done anywhere else? Gmar chasimah tovah to all. Immanuel Burton. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Saul Mashbaum <smash52@...> Date: Sun, 19 Sep 2004 21:14:34 +0200 Subject: Re: Rabbeinu Tam Tefillin Michael Poppers <MPoppers@...> wrote: >As for truly-possible reasons for a four-headed shin in addition to the >shin noted as miSinai, the commentaries I've seen all point to the >special nature of the writing of the luchos ("in the air," such that, >IIUC, a three-dimensional shin, or any other letter, casts a shadow in >four directions), and why someone (given that this aspect, and perhaps >the 2nd shin in general, isn't miSinai) decided to allude to such an >aspect may be a worthy topic for discussion, if anyone has sources >and/or a breadth&depth of traditional knowledge to bring to the table. The Rov, Rabbi Yosef Dov HaLevi Soloveitchik discusses this in the first of the shiurim recently published by Mosad HaRav Kook (Shiurei HaGrid al Inyanei Tephillin, Ktivat Stam, V'Tzitzit, edited by Rabbi Menachen Yair Kahn, Jerusalem,2004). The Rov indeed connects the 4-headed shin to the luchot. The writing on the luchot was unlike regular writing (on parchment, for example) in that it was engraved, the letter lying below the surface of the writing area. *Between* the four prongs of the special shin (and below them) lie three prongs, which themselves form a shin of sorts. Thus both sides of the tephillin shel rosh have a regular shin, one above the surface of the tephillin, and one engraved between the four prongs of the character on the other side. This concept appears in the Beit Yosef, siman 32, in the name of the sema"g. The Rov explains that the parhiot from sefer Shmot are connected to the Sinai experience, and therefore the shin next to them is luchot-related; the parshiot from D'varim are related to acceptance of all the mitzvot, and the shin next to them is formed in the way a shin is written in the Torah. The Rov particularly connected this with the order of the parshiot according to Rabbanu Tam, according to whom tephillin have not so much 4 parshiot as 2 pairs of parshiot (Shmot/D'varim) each written in order from a different viewpoint (the wearer/ the viewer of the tephillin). This brief citation from this shiur is like a drop in the sea. I highly recommend that anyone with access to this shiur study it carefully; it is full of profound insights on both the tephillin of Rabbenu Tam in particular, and tephillin in general. Saul Mashbaum ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Frank Silbermann <fs@...> Date: Sun, 19 Sep 2004 10:37:17 -0500 (CDT) Subject: Yiddish > Andy Goldfinger wrote: >> One of my children took a college course in Yiddish. The form of >> Yiddish they taught was described by a friend of mine as "Academic >> Yiddish," a dialect that was never spoken by anybody, anywhere, at any >> time. Is this correct? Perets Mett <p.mett@...>: > In a sense, yes. Academic Yiddish has the grammar of Polish Yiddish > with the pronunciation (almost) of Litvish Yiddish; in that sense it > was never spoken by anybody! The same, by the way, was true of standard German, which I believe gets its pronunciation mostly from the southern dialects, but its vocabulary (and maybe grammar) from the northern dialects. Martin Luthor invented it when writing his translation of the Bible. The idea was to find something in the middle that all Germans could understand (at least in written form) without too much difficulty. Of course, with compulsory public education in the last century more and more Germans nowadays do speak standard German, especially in the north where the dialects are dying out. I wouldn't be surprised if the same weren't also true of other languages, e.g. standard Italian. In fact, the standardization of Yiddish is did more than anything else to give Yiddish the status of a language, rather than merely a dialect or collection of dialects. (Usually, standardization requires government enforcement -- hence the need for "an army and a navy".) Obviously, Yiddish was once considered a mere dialect of German -- that's why Yiddish-speaking Jews were called "Askenazim" (after the Hebrew name for Germany). Frank Silbermann New Orleans, Louisiana <fs@...> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 44 Issue 88