Volume 46 Number 82 Produced: Fri Feb 4 5:22:37 EST 2005 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Grammar Question (2) [Jack Gross, Martin Stern] Kitzur Shulchan Aruch Yomi and Adar Sheni [Paul Ginsburg] Kosher Food Recall [Irwin Weiss] Plastic Coverings [Tzvi Stein] Seudat Purim on Friday (4) [Yehonatan & Randy Chipman, Martin Stern, Gil Student, Sperling, Jonathan] Standing for the Prayer for the State [Mark Steiner] Standing for the Prayer for the State - Redux [Shmuel Himelstein] Tallit Query (2) [Bernard Raab, Ira L. Jacobson] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Jack Gross <jbgross@...> Date: Thu, 3 Feb 2005 09:53:29 -0500 Subject: RE: Grammar Question > From: Stuart Feldhamer <Stuart.Feldhamer@...> > Can one of the 13 or so people who responded to the grammar question > please provide a source for the assertion that the "vav hamehapechet" > ceases to perform the function of making the word be in the future tense > if it is pronounced incorrectly? The best source is Tanach itself, and your own powers of inference. Take natatti or natatta - I gave, you gave. - Without the vav prefix, it invariably represents past tense, and is invariably mill'el (naTATti). - With the Vav prefix, it either - - retains the past-tense meaning, or - - flips to future. The context nearly always makes clear which of the two is intended; but invariably (or very nearly so), the former are Mill'el (accented on penult vowel) and the latter Mill'ra (accented on final vowel). So one can infer the rule. It's an inference from the evidence, and there may be scattered counter-examples that are left as "zarim" (unexplained exceptions), or given particular explanations. But the pattern is so obvious that the alternative hypotheses (of no correlation between the accept and the tense; or random assignment of accent for the flipped-to-future usage) are, well, absurd. I don't think it matters much whether the inferred rule is stated by an Ibn Ezra or Ibn Jannach or Rada"k, or by a Jack or a Stuart come-lately -- pull out a concordance, look up the examples, and draw your own conclusions. (In fact, we re-analyze the sources cited by rishonim to support their conclusions - and attack the validity of their inferences conclusions - all the time in other areas of Talmud Torah, so why should "toras dikduk" be any different?) Note that there are exceptions to some of the accentuation rules, with or without "vav hahippuch": - "v'lo raVU aleha" - Gen 26:22; we would expect RAvu. - "v'shaVA el bet aviha" - Lev 22:13; not v'SHAva. Note that the taam (cantillation mark) is Gershayim, which never occurs on a mill'el; if v'shava were mill'el, the taam would be Kadma. So the "decision" to make this an exception in accentuation here influences to assignment of t'amim. (Cf. Is 6:13, in the recent haftara, where the word is mill'el.) R. Yaakov Kaminecki offered a theory (sprinkled throughout "Emes L'Yaakov") that explains several such instances -- in effect disagreeing with the early grammarians who labelled them as unexplainable ("al derech hazarut"). So, in dikduk as in other spheres of torah study, there is always room for chiddushim (innovative explanations). Jack Gross ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, 03 Feb 2005 13:58:13 +0000 Subject: RE: Grammar Question I would have thought that it is obvious that misplacing the stress automatically changes the "vav hamehapechet" into a "vav hachibbur" and therefore does not change the tense. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Paul Ginsburg <GinsburgP@...> Date: Wed, 2 Feb 2005 10:43:46 -0500 Subject: Kitzur Shulchan Aruch Yomi and Adar Sheni The Kitzur Shulchan Aruch Yomi schedule does not include information of what to learn during Adar Sheni. Should a person repeat the Adar schedule once again for Adar Sheni this year? Thank you in advance for your assistance. Paul W. Ginsburg Rockville, Maryland ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Irwin Weiss <irwin@...> Date: Thu, 3 Feb 2005 20:30:46 -0500 Subject: Kosher Food Recall Kosher Food Recall: The following health alert is from the Federal (USDA) Food Safety and Inspection Service <http://www.fsis.usda.gov/News_&_Events/Recall_004_2005_Release/index.asp> dated January 31, 2005. Schreiber Processing Corp., a Maspeth, N.Y. firm, is voluntarily recalling approximately 5,760 pounds of chicken products that may be contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes, the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Food Safety and Inspection Service announced today. The products subject to recall are: * 48 oz. boxes of "EMPIRE KOSHER, Fully Cooked, BUFFALO STYLE WINGS, CHICKEN WINGS COATED IN SAUCE." The package also bears the date code "1444." * 28 oz. boxes of "EMPIRE KOSHER, FULLY COOKED, BREADED, FRIED CHICKEN, 6 TO 9 ASSORTED PIECES." The package also bears the date code "0274." Each product bears the establishment number "P-787" inside the USDA seal of inspection. The products were produced on August 10, 2004 and December 5, 2004. They were distributed to retail stores in CA, CT, IL, OH, LA, MD, NJ, NY, MA, MI, MN, PA and VA. Consumers with questions about the recall may contact Shlomi Pilo, company vice president of sales and marketing, at (718) 894-2000. <irwin@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Tzvi Stein <Tzvi.Stein@...> Date: Thu, 3 Feb 2005 16:35:39 -0500 Subject: Re: Plastic Coverings I've quite a few times disparagements of families who check out potential shiduchim by checking if they use a plastic covering on Shabbos. I've even heard of some who must find out if it's a "thick" plastic or a "thin" plastic. I agree it's a meshugas, but I'm curious as to what the reason is, from the point of view of those who care about it. What is their logic? Is plastic "good" or "bad" and why? Same question for "thick" vs. "thin". If anyone can fill my in, I'd appreciate it. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Yehonatan & Randy Chipman <yonarand@...> Date: Wed, 02 Feb 2005 20:55:42 +0200 Subject: Re: Seudat Purim on Friday In MJ v46n79, Joseph Mosseri asked about what to do thuis year, when Seudat Purim falls on a Friday: <<Purim this year is on Friday March 25th, less than 2 months away. When Purim falls out on Friday when is the proper time to have seudat Purim? Morning? Afternoon? Or closer to Shabbat and combine both meals into one?>> Even though your question is actually irrelevant to me personally, and to my fellow Yerushalmim(in our Holy City, we will observe "Purim Meshulash" this year, with different parts of Purim spraed over Friday, Shabbat and Sunday), I will answrer it, as on the whole we have more frequent experience of Purim on Friday than do other places. The custom, exactly like a Brit or Pidyon ha-Ben or other Seudat Mitzvah that falls on a Friday (including a Yom Tov seudah), is to have the seudah as early as possible during the day. Some Sephardim are strict to not only wash, but also to bentch before mid-day; I believe that such was Rav Ovadiah Yosef's ruling. Many Ashkenazim are strict about washing before that time, while others eat the meal during mid-day, and are only strict about not beginning later than Minhah Ketanah. See Orah Hayyim 695.2, in Hagahot ha-Ram"a, which says that lekhathila one ought to have the meal during the morning when it falls on Fridays, and the Mishnan Berurah there, which refers to some other sources as well. Incidentally, that same Ram"a says that one always (i.e., when it falls on other days of the week) ought to have the main part of the meal during the day, and not wash just before sundown and continue into the night, as many people do. The problem is that there's lots to do on Purim: hearing the Megillah in the morning, bringing mishloah manot, which should be brought to others before the seudah, since the whole idae of that mitzvah is that others share in your seudah, and vice versa, through having one course that you have sent (manot = portions, i.e, of a meal). One doesn't combine the seudat Purim with the Friday evening meal because each meal is a separate obligation, with its own distinct hiyyuv and character. That is in fact the reason why we in Jerusalem have "Purim meshulash": the megillah is read on Friday, with the rest of the world, because one doesn't read the megillah on Shabbat (gezerah de-Ravva, one doesn't perform mitzvot involving a specific object on Shabbat, so as to avoid accidentally carrying in the reshut harabbim); but one might think that the Seudah could take place on Shabbat, which is the 15th of Adar. But no, it is postponed to Sunday (but one doesn't say al hanissim, becayse it's not the actual day), precisely becaude the Purim seudah can on no account be combined with the shabbat seudah. That's in essence the same question you're asking, from the other end of Shabbat, so to speak. And once it is a separate,. distinct seudah, it must be eaten as early as possible during the day, so that one has an appetite for the Shabbat evening meal. May the doubling of Adar bring with it a double portion of simhah! Yehonatan Chipman ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Wed, 02 Feb 2005 17:00:48 +0000 Subject: Re: Seudat Purim on Friday on 2/2/05 10:49 am, Joseph Mosseri <joseph.mosseri@...> wrote: > Purim this year is on Friday March 25th, less than 2 months away. > When Purim falls out on Friday when is the proper time to have seudat > Purim? Morning? Afternoon? Or closer to Shabbat and combine both meals > into one? As far as I can remember from previous occasions when this happened, one makes the Purim seudah in the morning in order to to be able to eat one's Shabbat seudah with appropriate appetite. One should definitely not have it close to Shabbat. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Gil Student <gil_student@...> Date: Wed, 2 Feb 2005 12:02:52 -0500 Subject: Re: Seudat Purim on Friday This happened four years ago in 2001 and the instructions given were to *begin* the meal before midday. See http://www.aishdas.org/avodah/vol06/v06n146.shtml Gil Student www.YasharBooks.com ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Sperling, Jonathan <jsperling@...> Date: Thu, 3 Feb 2005 11:12:51 -0500 Subject: Re: Seudat Purim on Friday SA Orach Chaim 695:2 and the Mishna Berura ad loc say that the Seudah should be eaten in the morning, before chatzot hayom. I do not believe there is any reason why one cannot deliver shaloch manot after, rather than before, the seudah (other than zerizim makdimim, perhaps). ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mark Steiner <marksa@...> Date: Thu, 3 Feb 2005 15:21:49 +0200 Subject: RE: Standing for the Prayer for the State Without wanting to get into either the politics or theology of the Prayer for the State of Israel, I thought I would mention a remarkable phenomenon which I witnessed on Yom Ha-Atzmaut this year. We went on vacation to a moshav in the Golan Heights--here are people who ostensibly believe in the State of Israel and, of course, its elected government, as having religious significance. They therefore stand (with a sefer Torah to lend significance) and pray for the State, and its officials, saying "vetaknem be-etzah tovah milfanekha, " roughly "Grant them good counsel in Your eyes." Not long afterwards, they stood again (with a sefer Torah) and prayed to Hashem to protect them AGAINST those very same elected officials (particularly Sharon): "hafer `atzatam ve-kalkel mahshavtam" ("counfound their [evil] counsel"). (Since this is not a political discussion group, I won't explain why they felt they needed protection against the Prime Minister.) It seemed to me that there was a certain logical tension between the two prayers, and it wasn't clear which one Hashem was supposed to hear.... ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Shmuel Himelstein <himels@...> Date: Thu, 03 Feb 2005 14:00:25 +0200 Subject: Standing for the Prayer for the State - Redux According to press reports, there are quite a large number of people in the National-Religious camp in Israel who believe that the State has lost its meaning religiously since it signified its readiness to give back land. Some say that this approach now brings them close in philosophy to the Neturei Karta. There is even talk in the press of a move by some of them to refrain from using Israeli currency and not to buy products from anywhere but from Gaza and the West Bank. I wonder if this move away from the previous consensus regarding the State as the Beginning of the Flowering of our Redemption means that they have stopped saying the prayer as well - not to mention standing for it. Does anyone have information on this point? Shmuel Himelstein ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Bernard Raab <beraab@...> Date: Thu, 03 Feb 2005 16:13:13 -0500 Subject: RE: Tallit Query >Avi Heller asked how to keep a Tallit from constantly slipping off. I appreciate the query and the sentiment behind it. The constant, almost continuous, fiddling and readjusting of the tallis by almost every rabbi during his Shabbat sermon is annoying and distracting. But this seems to be something that we are destined to suffer without relief. Or is it? When did it become necessary to wear a tallis that is so large that it is necessary to drape the ends over your shoulders to keep it from dragging on the floor? This is the source of the whole problem. If one respected rabbi wore a tallis that was a little shorter so that it needn't be draped in that way, then a nice set of tallis clips would work beautifully to keep it in place without fiddling, and perhaps a new paradigm would be established. I'm not taking any bets. b'shalom--Bernie R. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ira L. Jacobson <laser@...> Date: Thu, 03 Feb 2005 14:35:39 +0200 Subject: Re: Tallit Query [ Part 1.1, Text/PLAIN 16 lines. ] [ Unable to print this part. ] Avi Heller asked how to keep a tallis from constantly slipping off. Seriously, the major cause seems to be the material of the tallis and that of the garment on which it rests. There are wool taleisim that are "rough" and others that are "smooth." Similarly for the garment that the tallis rests on. You can prevent the slippage by changing one or another of these items. ~=~=~=~=~=~=~=~= IRA L. JACOBSON =~=~=~=~=~=~=~=~ mailto:<laser@...> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 46 Issue 82