Volume 48 Number 47 Produced: Thu Jun 9 6:15:30 EDT 2005 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Public Sabbath Desecrators (3) [Mark Steiner, Chana Luntz, Mark Steiner] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mark Steiner <marksa@...> Date: Tue, 7 Jun 2005 18:08:32 +0300 Subject: RE: Public Sabbath Desecrators Let me rephrase my point. In the case of a Gentile, as Chana correctly asserts, there is a direct connection between the proihibition of wine and the fear of intermarriage. (Prof. Haym Soloveitchik in a recent book argues the contrary to this, but this connection is asserted by the poskim, and I believe that Chana is correct.) In the case of a Jew who publicly desecrates the sabbath (MSB) there is no such connection. Each of these prohibitions, if there is one, derives separately from the FORMAL analogy of a MSB to a Gentile. Furthermore, as Chana and I agree, there is no prohibition of "intermarriage" in the case of a MSB. We do not extent the FORMAL analogy so far. It follows, therefore, that the citation of the wine laws in the discussion of the status of a Jewish MSB is irrelevant and confuses the issue. Also, the discussion of marriage laws in the discussion of the status of wine handled by a MSB is irrelevant. Each law must be decided separately and on its own merits. (1) Let us take the issue of lending money at interest. As Chana knows, there is a controversy about the status of a converted Jew, whether he is treated as Christian for the purpose of these laws. Some rishonim held that it is strictly forbidden to lend such an apostate at interest, because he is "fort a yid," as we say in Yiddish. Others held that the penalty for apostasy is so strong that it supersedes the prohibition to lend money at interest to a Jew. I would like to see such a controversy among the classical sources about a MSB. Did anybody ever hold that one could lend money to a MSB at interest? (I don't know the answer, but would welcome enlightenment from the list.) (2) Here is another question: is a MSB in the classical sources incompetent (a) to give a get? (b) to give halitzah? Again, I don't have time to research the issue right now, but I would be surprised if there were "sources" giving a positive answer to these questions. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chana Luntz <Heather_Luntz@...> Date: Wed, 8 Jun 2005 12:14:33 +0100 Subject: RE: Public Sabbath Desecrators Quoting Mark Steiner <marksa@...>: > Let me rephrase my point. > In the case of a Gentile, as Chana correctly asserts, there is a direct > connection between the proihibition of wine and the fear of intermarriage. > (Prof. Haym Soloveitchik in a recent book argues the contrary to this, but > this connection is asserted by the poskim, and I believe that Chana is > correct.) Note by the way that while we both agree, I suspect that we also both agree that it is linked to the individual and not his children. If a particular non Jew happens to have only Jewish daughters (because their mother is Jewish let us say) who may be perfectly eligible for marriage, that does not make his wine permissible (or him himself eligible for marriage). > In the case of a Jew who publicly desecrates the sabbath (MSB) there > is no such connection. Each of these prohibitions, if there is one, > derives separately from the FORMAL analogy of a MSB to a Gentile. > Furthermore, as Chana and I agree, there is no prohibition of > "intermarriage" in the case of a MSB. We do not extent the FORMAL > analogy so far. I think this is where we disagree. I do not believe that there is any prohibition on the intermarriage with the children of an MSB or a bone fide Jewish idol worshipper for that matter, but I cannot see how we cannot extend the formal analogy to the individual themselves. Lets deal with the latter case (ie the bone fide Jewish idol worshiper) for the moment, because that is really what we are discussing here and everything else derives from that. OK, so we have a bone fide Jewish idol worshipper who shows up and wants to get married (lets face it, in the time of the Ran, unlikely, but you never know). You appear to believe that a Rav will marry him, and should marry him. I do not. Why? Well, beside for the obvious oddity that I have yet to see a chuppah where the chossen and/or kala does not touch the wine (and yes, this can be solved by using mevushal wine, but the very role that wine plays in a chuppah provides part of the link to intermarriage that we have discussed above), there are other problems here: a) A chosson is mekadash the kala "k'das Moshe v'Yisroel". What does it mean to say that a person who totally denies Hashem and his Torah is expected to make that statement, and the kosher eidim are expected to witness such a statement. Do you really believe that a Rav/eidim should be putting themselves into a position where they are witness to a statement which is known to be effectively a lie on the part of the individual making it? A person whom it is agreed that their brocha is not a brocha, but kosher eidim are to be required to hang onto their every word to make sure they make a statement of kedusha correctly and so they can verify that fact? b) Part of the essence of a wedding is the sheva brochas, which involve invoking the name of Hashem in the context of the mitzvah that is being performed. Is it appropriate to invoke the name of Hashem in circumstances where the mitzvah is being performed by a mumar of the whole Torah? Can it really be called a mitzvah? It seems to me there are serious questions of invoking Hashem's name l'vatala that no Rav should want to get into. c) It is a mitzvah to be mechabed [honour] the chossen, who is homilitically (and in some regards halachically) regarded as a melech for the day. Is it ever appropriate for a Rav to allow somebody who is a denier of Hashem and his Torah to be put in the category of a melech whom one is required to be mechubed and whose sameach [happiness] it is a mitzvah to provide? d) The Torah itself describes marriage as the entering into of klal Israel. There is nothing that I can think of that more fundamentally negates any description of a person as like a non Jew (formally or otherwise). It therefore strikes me as difficult to describe any person who is allowed to enter into the klal by virtue of marriage as being like a non Jew in any fundamental respect whatever we say about wine and minyan (one does not need to be counted in a minyan to be a Jew, I am, of course, not counted in a minyan and I do not believe that discounts me as a Jew). If we are FORMALLY treating a person as like a non Jew, to the extent that we discount their shechita, because they are not considered in the parsha of shechita, we discount their brochas, and we treif their wine, then, it seems to me, that has to apply to being unwilling to marry them at the very least l'chatchila (and even query whether they are sufficiently in the parsha of kiddushin for their statement vis a vis kidushin to be an effective statement - but that at most is a bideved question, not a l'chatchila one). > It follows, therefore, that the citation of the wine laws in the > discussion of the status of a Jewish MSB is irrelevant and confuses > the issue. Also, the discussion of marriage laws in the discussion of > the status of wine handled by a MSB is irrelevant. Each law must be > decided separately and on its own merits. The reason I do not think it is irrelevant is because I do think there is a general and quite strong link between wine and intermarriage of the individual in question (but not necessarily of their children as the case of the non Jew with Jewish children illustrates above). > (1) Let us take the issue of lending money at interest. As Chana knows, > there is a controversy about the status of a converted Jew, whether he is > treated as Christian for the purpose of these laws. Some rishonim held that > it is strictly forbidden to lend such an apostate at interest, because he is > "fort a yid," as we say in Yiddish. Others held that the penalty for > apostasy is so strong that it supersedes the prohibition to lend money at > interest to a Jew. > > I would like to see such a controversy among the classical sources about a > MSB. Did anybody ever hold that one could lend money to a MSB at interest? > (I don't know the answer, but would welcome enlightenment from the list.) > > (2) Here is another question: is a MSB in the classical sources incompetent > (a) to give a get? (b) to give halitzah? Again, I don't have time to > research the issue right now, but I would be surprised if there were > "sources" giving a positive answer to these questions. In practice, of course, this is something that happens every day and is accepted as valid every day - but again, this to my mind is part of the reality that we do not treat modern day MSB's as being in the same category as a genuine Jewish idol worshipper. The more serious question is whether a genuine Jewish idol worshipper is sufficiently in the parsha of gitten v'kiddushin that their get/halitza is a get/halitza? The thing about gitten and chalitza is that virtually by definition the situation is bidieved because of the aguna issues - and I would have thought therefore the correct way to get around it was by using "in the alternative" type logic. That is, *if* in fact they are sufficiently in the parsha that their get is a get and/or their chalitza is a chalitza, then the get/chalitza will be valid if given, and if in fact they are sufficently outside the parsha that they are like a non Jew in every respect, then, in the case of chalitza there is no zika (ie it is as if there is no brother) and in the case of kiddushin - well maybe the kiddushin was never valid in the first place and if it was maybe it is as if the Jew who did that kiddushin died. I would therefore have thought that m'safek the get/chalitza should be arranged and that should be enough (although clearly if there are other brothers who do not fall within this category the other brothers should do the chalitza to avoid the safek). However, this kind of bideved does not exist in circumstances where a Rav agrees to be mesader kiddushin (and in fact agreeing so to do is more likely to put one into one of the safekos listed above). Therefore, as mentioned, I cannot see any justification for a Rav agreeing to marry somebody unless they know for sure they are in the parsha of gitten and kiddushin (and certainly in many places, including here in London and in Israel, great lengths are gone to to makes sure that the person really does have correct Jewish ancestry, and no marriage is permitted to take place under halachic auspices if there is any doubt about that). The very fact that all the investigation is into the parentage of the individuals, and not into their sabbath observance, to my mind says a lot about the view that is taken of the known modern phenomonon of public sabbath desecration. Regards Chana ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mark Steiner <marksa@...> Date: Wed, 8 Jun 2005 23:53:23 +0300 Subject: RE: Public Sabbath Desecrators Chana seems to feel that I offered an opinion whether a rabbi can officiate at the wedding of a MSB according to halacha. Let me repeat, all I'm saying is that the answer cannot be derived from the wine laws. (By the way, a friend of mine at college who wanted to be observant, but did not fully believe in the principles of Orthodox Judaism, had serious problems about drinking his own wine...he later became Orthodox and solved this problem) For this reason, a decision that a MSB today is treated as a Jew for certain purposes, would not necessarily mean that his wine is permitted. Remember that wine was prohibited mainly because of the issue of idolatry (libation), intermarriage is almost a side issue. Thus, the laws of Gentile wine, even today when we have no actual libations, follow FORMALLY the rules of yayin nesech (wine becomes forbidden by touching, even today, though the only fear is supposed to be intermarriange--so what difference does contact make? Why would a waiter touching my wine raise a specter of intermarriage? Answer: it doesn't, formally, the rules of wine remain analogous to the rules for idolatrous offerings. This explanation is given by the Tosafot to Avoda Zara). One could therefore imagine a posek distinguishing different contexts. One point I definitely disagree with Chana is in her use of an expression "kvetch out a heter" in referring to the opinions of gedolei hador who have treated the modern MSB or even heretics differently from what is prescribed in the shulhan arukh, and I would be very happy if she would withdraw this phrase from circulation. Both the Hazon Ish and Reb Chaim Brisker held that some (if not all) of these laws do not apply today, and both of these gedolim were known to be unyielding in their zealotry when they felt that basic principles of faith were being challenged. Usually the argument is given that modern MSB or nonbelievers are somehow better than their forebears in Talmudic times and must therefore be treated more gently. Yet both the Hazon Ish and the Brisker Rov argued just the opposite--it is the decline of our generation which makes the difference. For example, the Hazon Ish points out (on the gemara stating that capital punishment was abolished whern murder was rampant) that capital punishment can have its effect as a deterrent only when it is rare; in a violent society, capital punishment just increases the violence. This strikes me as Talmudic reasoning at its deepest. The "Brisker Rov applied this exact idea (independently, of course--everybody knows there was a serious divergence between their halachic methodologies) to the case of heretics. The following story is well documented: a young Bundist revolutionary was imprisoned by the Czarist regime for shooting a revolver at the pictures of the Czar, and sentenced to death on Yom Kippur. This boy had lit cigarettes on shabbos and blown smoke in Reb Haym's face as he walked to shul. The regime set a huge ransom for this boy, and naturally the rabbonim and lay leaders of Brisk were in no mood to cough up this sum--he is even worse than a non-Jew, they said; good riddance. Yet Reb Haym insisted that he must be saved. The laws in the Talmud to the contrary presupposed the educational effect of capital punishment. Just as the Hazon Ish, he added that this can only work if the number of atheists is few. Today, he said, there are so many apikorsim, that "one more apikores or one less makes no difference." Once this is said, the status of the Bundist reverts back to that of an ordinary Jew who must be saved at all costs. Reb Haym therefore locked all the shuls in Brisk and did not allow them to say Kol Nidrei uintil the huge sum was raised. As a matter of fact, Reb Haym was so engaged in saving the life of a Jew who blew smoke into his fact on shabbos, that he didn't have time to eat, and fasted two days. Did this mean that Reb Haym would drionk the Bundist's wine? I doubt it...And neither, I think, would the Hazon Ish.. ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 48 Issue 47