Volume 59 Number 23 Produced: Sun, 12 Sep 2010 11:35:44 EDT Subjects Discussed In This Issue: "Statement of Principles" regarding homosexuality [Orrin Tilevitz] Clapping and Dancing on Shabbat [Akiva Miller] Entering a church (2) [Orrin Tilevitz Frank Silbermann] Five Dates of Rosh HaShanah [Richard Fiedler] Rambam's change of mind (2) [Avraham Walfish Avraham Walfish] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 02:01 PM Subject: "Statement of Principles" regarding homosexuality Avie Walfish wrote (MJ 59#22): > Shabbat violation is undoubtedly a very serious transgression, but ... it is > common practice in many shuls, ... to let such people get aliyot and other > synagogue honors (although presumably in Orthodox shuls, they would not be > selected as hazzanim for yamim noraim - although in my youth I saw that in > an Orthodox shul as well). The case of shabbat, which many posters have cited as an analogy in this discussion, is a red herring. For one thing, as serious a transgression as it is, it is not in the category of yehareig ve-al yaavor. For another, at least in the past, many who committed that transgression felt that the alternative was starvation for themselves and their families, That is not the alternative to abstaining from sex. For a third, even today there are Orthodox shuls with few or no Sabbath-observing congregants beyond the rabbi, at least congregants capable of acting as shelichei tzibur. There are also specific sources, which Rabbi Fuchs quotes, that permit sabbath-desecrators to receive aliyot. As far as chazzanim goes, there seems to have been a perverse eastern European tradition of chazzanim as rogues. See the I.L. Peretz short story (which I am told is based on folk motifs), Neilah in Gehenna. > If Orrin thinks that taking communal attitudes into account in areas where > the halakhah allows for it amounts to calling for the halakhah to "adapt", > then I plead guilty - yes, where the halakhah allows for flexibility, it > should adapt. Despite my persistent questioning, Avie does not say why he thinks the halacha permits distinctions to be made between homosexual conduct and forbidden heterosexual conduct. > technically there is no prohibition, but the LOR would not permit it - i.e. > this is a matter where the halakhah leaves room for communal discretion. That is a non sequitur. That there is no technical halachic prohibition does not mean that the halacha is indifferent or that it is a matter to be decided by the community. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Akiva Miller <kennethgmiller@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 12:01 PM Subject: Clapping and Dancing on Shabbat Yechiel Conway (MJ 59:19) wrote: > The Minchat Elazar (1:29), however, takes the view that according > to all authorities, including the Ashkenazim who follow the Rama > (the language used is a pun on Shemot 14:8), it is permitted to > clap and dance on Shabbat whenever a mitzvah is involved. Nowadays, > according to the Minchat Elazar, clapping and dancing is part and > parcel of the mitzvah rejoicing of Shabbat enjoyment (the term used > is "simcha shel mitzvah shel oneg Shabbat") and is therefore > permitted as an accompaniment to vocal singing. The Minchat Elazar > would not have allowed clapping by way of applause because this has > nothing to do with the "simcha shel mitzvah shel oneg Shabbat". I would like to ask a question about the last of these quoted sentences. You wrote (emphasis mine) that "The Minchat Elazar WOULD not have allowed clapping by way of applause..." It sounds to me like the Minchat Elazar did not explicitly write about applause, and it is only your comment that he would not have allowed it. I'd like to know if this is in fact what you mean. The reason I'm asking is this: The authorities do have many discussions about clapping hands on Shabbat, but from what I've seen, it is ALWAYS in the context of music. This is significant, because I understand this to be a part of the prohibition against musical instruments, and the question is whether or not this prohibition goes so far as to cover a sort of music which is produced ONLY with one's body, and involves no musical instrument whatsoever. But does applause even count as music at all? I recall mentioning this to someone who made an interesting distinction between European applause and American applause: In Europe, the audience tends to clap in unison, and by synchronizing one's clapping with the group, a regular beat develops, and this could be forbidden. In America, however, the clapping is totally random, is not musical in any way, and would be allowed. According to this logic, the Minchat Elazar might still allow American-style applause. Even though it has nothing to do with the "simcha shel mitzvah shel oneg Shabbat", it doesn't NEED that to be allowed, because only musical applause is forbidden to begin with. Akiva Miller ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 02:01 PM Subject: Entering a church Lisa Liel wrote (MJ 59#22): > And even according to the small minority view which says that Christianity, > as such, is not idolatry for non-Jews, it certainly is for Jews. I have heard this position and have had difficulty understanding it. Does it mean that the act is only prohibited to Jews or that it bears the punishment of yehareig ve-al yaavor [accept martyrdom rather than transgress - MOD] as real avoda zara [idolatry - MOD]? If so, how is that possible? Btw, in that small minority is the Meiri, hardly a minor figure. David Tzohar wrote (MJ 59#22): > I think that Orrin Tilevitz (MJ 59#21) lets the minim (xtians) off much too > easily... Catholics who kneel before idols (crucifixes) and Eastern Orthodox > who pray to icons are definitely ovdei avodah zara [idol worshippers -MOD]. I was responding largely to Josh Backon's dogmatic post, and particularly to his assertion that entering a church is biblically forbidden, an assertion that takes several leaps of faith (no pun intended) since we believe that the Bible antedates the Christian church. My point is not that no form of Christianity is avoda zara (I dont believe that), or that it is perfectly acceptable for a Jew to enter a church (it isn't). It is that the issue is not black and white, as Josh paints it, and that the prohibition of entering a church is not a particularly severe one. I also wonder about the extent to which the responsa asserting this ban, including modern responsa that rely on the earlier ones, resulted from two factors that are, or may, be non-issues today. The first is forced baptisms of Jews, which occurred in Europe at least into the mid-nineteenth century. Typically, the church would assert that the conversion was voluntary. It would certainly be helpful for the Jewish leadership, when it approached the church or the government to attempt to reclaim the victim, to be able to assert that no Jew would ever voluntarily enter a church. Forced baptisms seem to be a thing of the past. Second is the fear that one who enters a church may be influenced to convert. That is highly unlikely to be true today for anyone who would listen to a responsum. By the way, AFIK, minim are not xtians but Judeo-xtians, of the J for J type. Josh Backon wrote (MJ 59#22): > And this prohibition is even in the case where a major non-Jewish dignitary > (ruler, president, king) dies and a rabbi is invited to the funeral. Even less clear. I refer you to an email exchange between Rabbis Michael Broyde and Kenneth Auman at http://hirhurim.blogspot.com/2009/02/entering-sanctuary-for-hatzalat-yisrael.html about whether it is permitted to enter a church for hatzalat yisrael, and exactly what that phrase means in this context. Suffice it for the present discussion that, according to Rabbi Broyde, many chief rabbis have attended such funerals. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Frank Silbermann <frank_silbermann@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 02:01 PM Subject: Entering a church Orrin Tilevitz wrote (MJ 59#21): > ... there is a Tosafot in, I think, Sanhedrin, raising the idea of shituf, > the idea that Christianity is not considered idol worship because Hashem is > being worshiped together with someone else. There is another Tosafot at the > beginning of Avoda Zara explaining why today we can trade with Christians on > their religious holiday even though the gemara bars one from trading with > idol worshippers on such days. ... Josh Backon replied (MJ 59#22): > You have conflated what is permitted for gentiles vs. what is forbidden to > Jews. I don't see anything being conflated here. The discussion concerns a Jew entering a church, not a Jew engaging in Christian worship. Josh posted opinions that were based on the principle that we should not benefit from anything designed for use in idolatry. I don't think this applies to generic items such as coins that may have once been placed in an idolator's collection basket. And obviously, there must be exceptions, such as those which allow a Chabad congregation to purchase a church building and convert it to a shul. But I digress... Let's assume that Christianity is forbidden as idolatry for Jews but not for gentiles. Though it might follow that we should not benefit from an item designed for a _Jew's_ use in Christian worship, we would not necessarily be forbidden an item used by a gentile in a practice which for him is not idolatry. (As analogy, candy bars produced by a gentile-owned factory may be certified as kosher even if the factory operates seven days of the week and on Yom Kippur.) Orrin Tilevitz (MJ 59#21): > And when I once asked Rabbi Jacob Kret, z'l, about attending a funeral > service in a church for a colleague, he responded that if there are > business reasons to go, it's ok. Josh Backon (MJ 59#22): > I will reiterate what I posted here last week: ... What on earth is the point of reiterating? Are you adopting the Pee Wee Herman style of argument -- competitive repetition to see who tires first? Frank Silbermann ........... Memphis, Tennessee ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Richard Fiedler <richardfiedler@...> Date: Sun, Sep 12,2010 at 10:01 AM Subject: Five Dates of Rosh HaShanah Here are five dates which are indicative of the origin of the Hebrew Calendar. 358 CE - Traditionally this has been identified as the initiation of the Hebrew Calendar. From Wikipedia "There is a tradition, first mentioned by Hai Gaon (d.1038 CE), that Hillel b. R. Yehuda "in the year 670 of the Seleucid era" (i.e. 358-359 CE) was responsible for the new calculated calendar with a fixed intercalation cycle. Later writers, such as Nachmanides, explained Hai Gaon's words to mean that the entire computed calendar was due to Hillel b. Yehuda. Maimonides, in the 12th century, stated that the Mishnaic calendar was used "until the days of Abaye and Rava", who flourished ca. 320-350 CE, and that the change came when "the land of Israel was destroyed, and no permanent court was left." With Sacha Stern's book where he expresses the doubt that Hillel b. R. Yehuda even existed from a scholarly point of view this date has fallen to disrepute. Certainly however most Rabbis if asked would support the Ramban's claim that this was when the Calendar started. Science comes to support the significance of this date. The Molad of Tishrei for Rosh HaShanah 358-359 CE was Shabbat 23h 233p or Sept 19, 0358 at 5:12 PM. The Lunar Conjunction was Sept 19, 0358 at 9:41 PM. Erev Rosh HaShanah the Old Moon rose at 3:50 AM with sunrise at 5:24 AM and with 41 hours and 51 minutes to the conjunction this would be one of the most significant Old Moons in the last 2000 years. 120 CE - The conflict between Rabban Galmiel and Rabbi Yehoshua. This date was not given in the Mishna but considering the claims made by the witnesses there are no other likely dates between 100 CE and 136 CE. The Molad of Tishrei was Yom Sheni 21h 601p Sept 10, 0120 at 3:33 PM. The Lunar Conjunction was Sept 10 at 5:04 PM. Erev Rosh HaShanah the Old Moon rose at 3:52 AM with sunrise at 5:17 AM and 39 hours and 12 minutes to the conjunction, 198 CE - R' Hiyya walked by the light of the old moon 4 miles according to the Yerushalmi. This was identified by Rashi as Erev Rosh HaShanah. This date is the only date consistent with the facts and the period in which R' Hiyya lived. R' Hiyya was a student of Shmuel who said the calendar was calculated. The Molad of Tishrei was Yom Sheni 22h 126p Sept 18, 0198 at 4:07 PM. The Lunar Conjunction was Sept 10 at 6:18 PM. Erev Rosh HaShanah the Old Moon rose at 3:42 AM with sunrise at 5:23 AM and 38 hours and 34 minutes to the conjunction, with an hour and a half to walk the 4 miles. 835 CE - The Exilarch's Letter is discussed in detail on my website. Bavel was having a major battle with the Karites and this documented date can be seen to have been a date in which the Old Moon was clearly seen Erev Rosh HaShanah. The Molad of Tishrei was Yom Shishi 22h 660p Aug 27, 0835 at 4:36 PM. The Lunar Conjunction was Aug 27 at 9:40 PM(Bavel). Erev Rosh HaShanah the Old Moon rose at 3:48 AM with sunrise at 5:33 AM and 39 hours and 10 minutes to the conjunction, all times in Bavel. No doubt the Karites rejoiced with this apparent error. All of these dates are well founded and have in common that the Old Moon would be clearly seen belying the presumption that witnesses were the determinant factor in Rosh Chodesh. 923 CE - The conflict between Saadia Gaon and Ben Meir. The Molad of Tishrei was Yom Shabbat 18h 237p Sept 13, 0923 at 12:13 PM. There was no problem of an Old Moon being seen. I believe the motivation of Saadia Gaon was to eliminate future such problems such as one which would occur in 934 CE. Had the Molad Zaqen rule been in place from the beginning all instances there would never had been a conflict with Rabban Gamliel and Rabbi Yehoshua. The Molad Zaqen Rule eliminates any sighting of the Old Moon. The Molad Zaqen rule applies to 25% of all Molads of Tishrei but it prevents the 3.75% of the cases were the likely sighting of an Old Moon would conflict with the perception that Rosh HaShanah was determined by witnessed testimony. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avraham Walfish <rawalfish@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 11:01 AM Subject: Rambam's change of mind Chana Luntz wrote (MJ 59#22) in response to me (MJ 59#21): > In every context I can think of, where women are exempt from something, > the Rambam specifically says so... Here he makes no such statement. I don't have time to do a thorough study of this subject, but here's one counterexample off the top of my head: in Hilkhot Hanukkah Chapter 3 I don't see any explicit statement exempting women from reciting Hallel, even though 3:14 makes it clear that women are in fact exempt. I suspect that the Rambam is less consistent in this matter than you think, and there may be also be a differentiation here between Torah mitzvot and rabbinic enactments. >> I think the simpler and more convincing reading is that women are included >> in 1:1 and not in 1:5. (And 6:10 just refers back to the obligation about >> which we know already, namely 1:1). > Actually no. 6:10 adds in one key word that is not in 1:1 "Nashim, avadim > *vkatanim*" - women, slaves *and minors* are obligated in tephila. > Now, it is not at all surprising that katanim are not mentioned in 1:1 and > 1:2, because the obligation of katanim for anything is generally understood > not to be from the Torah, but to be rabbinic. The exclusion of minors from 1:2 is for an obvious reason - the status of minors has nothing to do with the nature of prayer as a non-time-bound commandment, which is the main point of 1:1. The inclusion of ketanim (minors) in 6:10 has troubled many commentators, especially in light of Rambam's formulation in Hilkhot Keriyat Shema 4:1 that ketanim are exempt, but fathers are obligated to educate them to do it. Rambam seems here to be following the language of Mishnah Berakhot 3:3, which exempts minors from shema but obligates them in prayer, but Rashi and Tosfot already noted that this mishnah seems to contradict itself - if viewed from the perspective of personal obligation, the minor should be exempt from both, but if viewed from the perspective of father's educational duty, he should be obligated in both. Neither Rashi's nor Tosfot's answer seems to fit the Rambam's differentiation between educational obligation for shema and personal obligation for prayer. Rav Kappah quotes Sidrei Moshe, who argues your case - 1:1-2 is Torah law, from which minors are exempt, but 6:10 is rabbinic, and minors are included. He further draws your conclusion that women are obligated according to Rambam in 3 daily prayers. They don't do so, he argues, because women can't properly concentrate and in 4:15, Rambam forbids praying under such circumstances. I think this is a problematic reading, because even if 6:10 is referring to the rabbinic thrice-daily requirement of prayer, the Rambam still should have noted that the requirement of children is due to education, as he did in Hilkhot Keriyat Shema (and elsewhere). To my mind, Rav Rabinowitz in Yad Peshuta to Keriyat Shema 4:1 (pp. 111 ff.) has a better reading, which differentiates between mitzvot where the rabbis imposed the educational obligation on the parent and mitzvot where the educational obligation devolves on the child himself. In Rav Rabinowitz's view (p. 113), this has nothing to do with whether we are discussing rabbinic or Torah dimensions of prayer. > If 6:10 is not talking about a rabbinic obligation with respect to Nashim, > but to the previously referred to Torah obligation then the sentence is very > odd, mixing up Torah and rabbinic obligations in one go. There is indeed an odd mix of nashim, avadim, ketanim, insofar as the reasons for obligating and exempting of the former two differ from the reasons regarding the minor. However, the Rambam here, as usual, is simply citing the language of the Mishnah, which lumps the three together - and creates a complicated exegetical problem. It should be noted, however, that this trio is often brought together in the Mishnah, and it is far from unlikely that the literary desire to keep the trio together overrode the different halakhic logic applying to each. Some Rambam commentators (I forget where I saw this) suggest that "ketanim" in this formula does not really belong to this halakhah, and is simply cited together with its usual partners as a catch-phrase (similar to some citations in the Mishnah of *gerushah vahalutza*, *mamzer venatin*, etc.). Avie Walfish ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avraham Walfish <rawalfish@...> Date: Wed, Sep 8,2010 at 11:01 AM Subject: Rambam's change of mind Russell wrote (MJ 59#22): > RE: Rambam prayer 1:1 vs 1:5. If you look at my posting on "Mimetic, > Textual and Creative Halacha" (MJ 59#17) you will see Avie's question > answered. > > For it is NOT ENOUGH to simply read the text textually. That is what Avie > is doing. He is saying women are included in 1:1 but not textually included > in 1:5 (1:6) and hence the burden of proof is on those who wish to include > them. > > One has to also look at reasons. I have a hermeneutical disagreement with Russell here. I have less faith than he in the reader's ability to assume that he knows the REASON, and I believe strongly that one has to be highly attentive to all the textual nuances before he can presume to interpret (or reinterpret) the text on the basis of REASONS. > The REASON for 1:5 is connection with the daily sacrifice which included ALL > of Israel. And yes, "The Jews became accustomed to say Arvith..." in 1:6 > includes all of Israel. It is not as clear as Russell assumes that the daily sacrifice included all of Israel. Certainly women were included in the atonement provided by the sacrifice, but unlike men, they had no active involvement in it - neither as kohanim or levi-im, nor even as participants in the *ma'amadot* of Israelites. They were not even required to donate the annual half-shekel from which the daily sacrifices (and all other public sacrifices) were purchased, although they were allowed to donate if they wanted to. Hence, it is far from self-evident that the rabbinically-instituted daily prayers necessarily included them. Here I come back to my earlier point. No doubt a case could be made that Russell's assumption that women were included in ALL of Israel is more plausible than my counter-argument. But how can we be sure that the Rambam agreed with Russell and not me, absent any textually-based proof. This is precisely why we have to privelege textually-based readings over REASON-based readings. Ketivah Vahatimah Tovah. Avie Walfish ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 59 Issue 23