Volume 62 Number 94 Produced: Fri, 08 Jul 16 03:32:36 -0400 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Brisker methodology [Joel Rich] Gemara narrative [Harlan Braude] Hashgachah question (2) [Martin Stern Dov Bloom] Some thoughts on An'im Zemirot (3) [Martin Stern Yisrael Medad Chaim Casper] Tachanun after Shavuot (2) [Chaim Casper Saul Mashbaum] Why isn't the Rema considered the final authority for Ashkenazim? [Chaim Casper] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Joel Rich <JRich@...> Date: Sun, Jul 3,2016 at 10:01 AM Subject: Brisker methodology Do others also think the Brisker (analytic) methodology is the final word in Talmudic learning? I was brought up that way but wonder if it isn't much like our current understanding of physics - it explains a lot more than we used to be able to but we know something still doesn't fit exactly. KT Joel Rich ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Harlan Braude <hbraude@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 12:01 PM Subject: Gemara narrative Joel Rich wrote (MJ 62#93): > When you are learning gemara and you come to an argument where the hava > amina [initial assumption] seems strange (e.g. Makot 14a where the gemara > first assumes the Rabbanan learn a halacha from lchaleik yatzat [separate > reference was to differentiate] and ask where does R' Yitzchak learn it from. > The Gemara answers from a different pasuk and then asks why don't the > Rabbanan learn it from there. The answer is ein hachi name [they could have > learned it from there indeed]?! So why does the Gemara record the whole > misattribution of reason, and how did the Rabbanan know/not know what the > correct source was? If one bears in mind that the Gemara is not merely a record of halachic decisions (shailos utshuvos), but probably the greatest guide to Torah study and teaching ever to appear, the answer becomes almost self-evident. Among other lessons one may glean from cases like this, it's not solely about the subject being analyzed as it is a demonstration of the analytical process itself. When attempting to resolve a difficulty, theories and ideas that aren't ultimately proven "right" are also welcomed. The key is to put in the effort, engage in discussions with others equally committed to addressing the issue and you'll ultimately make some real and significant progress. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 12:01 AM Subject: Hashgachah question Orrin Tilevitz wrote (MJ 62#93): > In an email I recently saw, a restaurant manager reported a surprise visit > from a mashgiach who noticed a bottle of white balsamic wine vinegar which he > said was "problematic", but told the manager that he could finish up the > bottle and order one from a better source next time. Could this statement > possibly be acceptable? (The kashrus agency involved is itself problematic, > for other reasons.) The crucial point is that the bottle of white balsamic wine was "problematic" but not definitely non-kosher, i.e. kosher bedieved [after the fact] rather than lechatchilah [in the first instance]. This sort of situation does not justify throwing it away but is best avoided, hence the mashgiach's ruling (or, more probably, that of the rav to whom he referred it). I suppose that this depended on the principle of chazakah [things retain their original status until evidence is forthcoming that it has changed] or avoidance of posible hefsed ochlim [unnecessary destruction of foodstuffs]. Together these would incline the halachic ruling as Orrin describes. I had a similar problem many years ago with an item that had been acceptable, but not under supervision, which changed its manufacturing process, making it non-kosher. I was told that we could finish what we already had purchased and only avoid purchasing it in future. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Dov Bloom <dovbbb@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 06:01 AM Subject: Hashgachah question In reply to Orrin Tilevitz (MJ 62#93): It sounds perfectly possible. The vinegar may have had a certain hechser, and the organization giving supervision to the restaurant prefered a different hechsher, but the first one was not traif. Or the first one may have an additive, which 98% of the time is kosher but may possibly be traif. Since the additive is less than 1/60 of the mixture, and a safeik, the supervisors prefer vineger where the additive has a hechsher, but allowed the restaurant to use up the muttar bedieved [permitted after the fact] bottle. The major problem with balsamic vinegar is stam yainom. If boiled or pasturized, the mixture would by most be considered ok, the supervisors prefer vinegar with a different arrangement. Kosher is not always binary, but there are many levels of hiddurim [stringencies] , preferences, questionable items ... ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 12:01 AM Subject: Some thoughts on An'im Zemirot Rose Landowne wrote (MJ 62#93): > Martin Stern wrote (MJ 62#92): > >> The problem with "leading responsively in Av Harachamim and Ashray" is that >> some element of chanting might be involved (or a more militant woman might be >> tempted to push the boundary). > > I have heard Rabbi Saul Berman state that a woman chanting does not fall under > the category of prohibited singing. That might be his opinion but others might disagree. With An'im Zemirot, the person leading its recital is probably better described as "singing" than "chanting". In any case, it would not be appropriate for this to lead to communal friction so, if this might be the result, it would be better avoided. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Yisrael Medad <yisrael.medad@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 03:01 AM Subject: Some thoughts on An'im Zemirot In MJ 62#93, Rose Landowne noted Martin Stern's intimating (MJ 62#92) that perhaps by leading the congregation to reply responsively at Av Harachamim and Ashray that > a more militant woman might be tempted to push the boundary and she responds that > Rabbi Saul Berman state[d] that a woman chanting does not fall under the > category of prohibited singing. Of course, it could be that Martin, or someone else, could have written that perhaps there are more militant and fanatic males who will not tolerate even the raising of a woman's voice above a whisper during prayer services. Would an alternative be drums, taking into consideration the Midrash that they were employed by the women to drown out their own voices? Yisrael Medad Shiloh ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chaim Casper <surfflorist@...> Date: Fri, Jul 1,2016 at 09:01 AM Subject: Some thoughts on An'im Zemirot There has been a lot of discussion regarding anim z'mirot over the last few issues. Here is a different question: Is anim z'mirot a d'var shebikdushah (something which requires a minyan of ten adult men to recite)? On one hand, it fits the definition of a d'var shebikdushah as it is recited responsively (e.g. the shaliah zibbur [the leader recites a line and the community says the next line], the same as borkhu or k'dushah. But on the other hand, if it is being recited by boys under 13, then how can you call it a d'var shebikdushah? Boys are not eligible to lead any part of a minyan. A side point would be can someone sit during anim z'mirot? The m'haber of the Shulkhan Arukh (R' Joseph Caro) rules that the Torah scrolls (when they are in the aron kodesh) are in a separate/different r'shut (domain or zone) and so even if you see them, you don't have to stand. And if pre-bar mitzvah boys are reciting anim z'mirot, then it might not be a dvar shebikdushah. So would sitting be an option at this point of the service? Finally, and forgive me if this has been noted, but the Rav, zt"l, Rav Yosef Dov Halevi Soloveitchik, did not say anim z'mirot because he was worried people might misunderstand the anthropomorphisms in it (most notably talking about G-d wearing t'fillin). Chaim Casper North Miami Beach, FL 33162-1229 ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chaim Casper <surfflorist@...> Date: Thu, Jun 30,2016 at 08:01 PM Subject: Tachanun after Shavuot Martin Stern (MJ 62#93) asked if zidkatekha should have been said this year (2016/5776) at Shabbat minhah because the olat re'iyah (a private sacrifice) would not have been offered on Shabbat, the 7th day after the first day of Shavuot. Allow me to offer two reasons why and how one could have skipped zidkatekha this year. 1) Lo palug (no differentiation). In a regular year, the sheva y'mei tashlumin (the seven days starting with Shavuot when the Shavuot sacrifices could be offered if the Beit Hamikdash / Temple were in existence) would always start with the first day of Shavuot (the 6th of Sivan) and end on the seventh day after (or the 12th of Sivan). It makes no difference how these seven days fall out; starting with the first day of Shavuot, no tahanun or zidkatekha would recited. Thus, in 2017, the first day of Shavuot is Wednesday, May 31 which means the last day for skipping tahanun is Tuesday, June 06. Now, should we say zidkatekha on that Shabbat, June 03 because you don't bring an olat re'iyah that Shabbat? That I have never heard of. So if one would skip zidkatekha on the 4th day of the sheva y'mei tashlumin (as per next year, 2017), one would skip zidkatekha on the 7th day of the sheva y'mei tashlumin (as per this year, 2016); lo palug, no difference as both days are Shabbat. 2) According to those who hold Matan Torah was on Sivan 07 To some, the sheva y'mei tashlumin start with the first day of Shavuot / Sivan 06. But there are those who hold that the Torah was given on Sivan 07 (cf R` Yosi in Shabbat 87). Thus, this year, there are those who would have skipped tahanun until Sunday, June 19 / Sivan 13 (Sivan 13 is the 7th day after Sivan 7). Thus, these people, even according to Martin, would have skipped zidkatekha on the Shabbat of June 18 as that would have been only the sixth day of the sheva y'mei tashlumin. Chaim Casper North Miami Beach, FL ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Saul Mashbaum <saul.mashbaum@...> Date: Tue, Jul 5,2016 at 06:01 AM Subject: Tachanun after Shavuot Martin Stern wrote (MJ 62#93): > Some people, however, have a minhag not to say tachanun during the whole week > after Shavuot which they say is based on the fact that those who had not > brought their olat re'iyah [festival offering] on Yom Tov itself had seven > days of tashlumin [catch up time]. This year Shavuot fell on Sunday so the > seventh day would have been on the following Shabbat when private korbanot > could not be brought. > > Does that mean that they should have said Tzidkatekha tzedek, whose recital is > linked to tachanun, at minchah on Shabbat this year? If not, is this a case of > mishum lo plug [not acting differently in special circumstances]? The custom in Israel is not to say tachanun *six* days after Shavuot, since one has *six* additional days to bring the olat re'iyah [festival offering] after Shavuot. The law is "Shavuot yesh lo tashlumim kol shiva" which means that all seven days are appropriate for the olat re'iyah *including Shavuot itself*. Thus the dates for not saying tachanun end on the 12th of Sivan, six days after Shavuot. Tzidkatekha tzedek *was* said at minchah on Shabbat, the 13th of Sivan, this year, according to the custom in Israel. In light of the above, I strongly suspect that Martin Stern is mistaken, and that there is no well-established minhag not to say tachanun on the 13th of Sivan. On the other hand, in most years, when there *is* a Shabbat during the six days after Shavuot, we in Israel do *not* say Tzidkatekha tzedek at minchah on that Shabbat, even though the olat reiyah could not have been brought on that day. This answers Martin's question. Saul Mashbaum ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chaim Casper <surfflorist@...> Date: Fri, Jul 1,2016 at 09:01 AM Subject: Why isn't the Rema considered the final authority for Ashkenazim? I could not find it in my records, but I remember seeing in MJ over the lastfew months that the mehaber of the Shulkhan Arukh, Rav Joseph Caro, is considered the final ruling by most Sepharadim. But on the other hand, Rav Moshe Isserles, known by the acronym of Rama (or Rema), is quite often ignored by Ashkenazi poskim (halakhic deciders) even though he is known as the source of Ashkenazi custom. I came across an answer. Rav Hayim ben B'zalel (1520-1588) was a slightly older contemporary of the Rama. In fact, they had learned together in the same yeshiva (Lubin). (Side note, Hayim was the older brother to Rav Judah Low, the MaHaRa"L miPrague). Rav Hayim rejected the Rama's Ashkenazi glosses to the Sepharadi Shulhan Arukh for a number of reasons. 1) The Rama's work reflected the Polish custom. It did not take into account the practices of the German, French or other Ashkenazi communities. 2) The Rama was a big maikel (lenient arbiter of halakhah) and there were cases where Rav Hayim felt the Rama did not reflect accurately what should be the (stricter) halakhah (from an historical or contemporary perspective, does this sound familiar to the reader?). 3) the Rama at times allowed custom to overrule halakhah. I came across a statement by Rav Avraham Gumbiner (the author of the Magen Avraham commentary on the Orah Hayim section of the Shulkhan Arukh) where he said the halakhah is "A" but everyone does the custom "B" and he couldn't understand why. This, of course, makes for a great shiur. Out of respect for the Rama (and the Gra), I try as much as possible to follow their rulings. However, my kids for years have ribbed me for doing things differently from other people! B'virkat Torah, Chaim Casper North Miami Beach, FL 33162-1229 ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 62 Issue 94