Volume 8 Number 7 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Eretz Yisroel [Danny Skaist] Hair [Anthony Fiorino] Looking on Kohanin Duchening [Yisrael Medad] M & M's [Yisrael Medad] Sheva Merachef [Raz Haramati] Why did Miriam die in the Desert? [Mechael Kanovsky] Wigs [Elisheva Schwartz] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: DANNY%<ILNCRD@...> (Danny Skaist) Date: Wed, 30 Jun 93 07:44:37 -0400 Subject: Eretz Yisroel >Larry Israel >Just a question for curiosity - Do the people who reject giving away part >of Eretz Yisroel to achieve peace, based on the impermissibility of doing >so, also reject the permissibility of selling part of Eretz Yisroel to >Gentiles during the Shmitta year? Not all. The debate on selling Eretz Yisroel to a gentile centers on the mitzva v'lo s'chanem (Deut 7:2) [do not give them (chanayah) "settlement"]. Both sides are machmir. Traditionally, it means not to sell/give land in Eretz Yisroel to a gentile. This is the position of those who reject selling part of Eretz Yisroel to Gentiles during the Shmitta year. Those who support selling part of Eretz Yisroel to Gentiles during the Shmitta year, do so because otherwise it means giving a large cash bonus to the gentile farmers now living in Eretz Yisroel (as the only source of permitted produce). This is an incentive to continue living in Eretz Yisroel and this, they claim, is contrary to the mitzva v'lo s'chanem. So those who hold that it is not permissable to give away parts of Eretz Yisroel, can also hold that Not selling the land is a violation of v'lo s'chanem. danny ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Anthony Fiorino <fiorino@...> Date: Tue, 29 Jun 93 12:50:37 -0400 Subject: Hair > Yosef Bechhofer > I humbly submit that Eitan is overusing the Aruch HaShulchan's > definitions of erva when he extends his leniency to das Moshe and das > Yehudis - laws which have a distinctly different definition. But the whole point of what I'm doing is exactly the opposite -- I am leaving the dat yehudit issue untouched because it has nothing to do with erva. The gemara requires, as a function of dat yehudit, that a married woman's hair be covered (by something more than a basket) when she is in public or semi-private. It does not seem like anything else is required as a function of either dat moshe or dat yehudit. (I have been calling this the "tzniut" aspect of hair covering, but perhaps that is not so accurate since most people associate tzniut issues with erva issues. I called it tzniut because the gemara links other immodest activities (bathing where men bathe, for example) along with uncovered hair as things forbidden by dat yehudit. For the sake of clarity, I will not refer to the dat yehudit issues as tzniut issues from now on, but simply refer to them as the dat yehudit issues.) It is my contention that the further definition of hair as an erva requires hair to be covered in the presence of all men, inside or outside, public or private, and requires that most or all of her hair be covered. The argument I developed is that if one is going to hold with the aruch hashulchan, that hair is no longer an erva, then these added stringencies so not apply either, and one is left simply with the dat yehudit issue. It seems to me that part of the issue involved in hair covering because of dat yehudit might be to provide a sign that a woman is married (this is pure speculation). If so, then perhaps wigs would be forbidden for this reason. If part of the reason of covering hair is to provide a sign of married status, then a wig defeats the whole purpose (unless, as the Pri megadim holds, one is from a wig-wearing community where everyone knows that a married women without a hat is wearing a wig; or, unless one has put a hat on top of the wig.) As I mentioned, it seems problematic to me to rely on the aruch hashulchan in the face of the others who disagree, but in pressing situations, even Rav Moshe is willing to rely on this aruch hashulchan. I have been informed (thanks Frank for forwarding them!) of a rather detailed discussion of this issue which took place a few years ago. Perhaps our moderator could provide the volume number (the issue numbers range from 181 to 212, but I don't know which volume). [It is in "Volume 1" which was before we had volume numbers. It is in the 1991 issues, and can be retrieved from the server by issueing the command: get mail-jewish m.j_91 to: <listserv@...> The discussion is in issues: 181, 184, 188, 190, 194, 197, 199, 201, 203, 206, 210, 212 and 215. Issue 215 is also where the Glatt Yacht discussion began, which is of relavance to the Pepsi discussion we are currently having. Mod.] In one of the issues, a newly married man who had asked Rav Ahron Soleveitchik a question on hair covering was told by Rav Ahron that "the proper thing" to do was for a women to cover her hair in the presence of men in all places, but as far as her _chiuv_ goes, it only applies to public places. Her home is not a public place, even with a few men over. However, if there is a party such as a shalom zachor, then her home has the din of a public place. Note that Rav Ahron drew the same distinction that I did -- between the baseline "absolute" chiuv (in public, my intepretation: a function of dat yehudit), and what is perhaps more flexible (in private, my interpretation: a function of hair as an erva), although the discussion with Rav Ahron apparently did not include the issue of the amount of hair to be covered. So, if the absolute chiuv is dat yehudit -- public hair covering (leaving aside the issue of amount of hair to be covered), and to cover in private is "the proper thing" but technically not a chiuv, which seems to be Rav Ahron's position based on the conversation reported on mail-jewish some years back, then my leniency (for, say, a distressed baalot t'shuva who is trying to be shomer halacha but doesn't feel able to cover her hair always) perhaps holds weight after all. It goes without saying that such a decision needs to be made by a halachic authority, giving a psak on a specific case. Such a decision should _not_ be made based on a reported conversation which was, after all, a psak being given to _someone else_ regarding that particular set of circumstances. Eitan Fiorino <fiorino@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: MEDAD%<ILNCRD@...> (Yisrael Medad) Date: Wed, 30 Jun 93 04:33:27 -0400 Subject: Looking on Kohanin Duchening Uri Meth, V7 No 91, misunderstood me. I was not looking for the reason not to look at the Kohanin by what is the reason/source for covering one head's with a Tallit. Last night, wandering around the Yeshivat Shiloh library, I found a book by Naftali Hofner, _Sefer Halacha_, Vol. V, dealing with the whole question of Duchening. There he quotes the Darchei Moshe commentator on the Rama that "there are those that cover themselves with the Tallit" (Bob Werman wrote me that the custom is Roman (Italian)) while the Yaavetz Siddur says not to so as to have a direct link (in his words: panim el panim = face to face) with the Shechina on the fingers of the Kohanim. Yisrael Medad ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: MEDAD%<ILNCRD@...> (Yisrael Medad) Date: Wed, 30 Jun 93 04:33:30 -0400 Subject: M & M's What is the kashrut standing of M & M's (that melt in your mouth) - Kasher or not? [As far as I know, there is no Hashgacha on M&M's. If anyone knows that there IS, please write in and let us know. Mod.] Yisrael Medad ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <rhara@...> (Raz Haramati) Date: Wed, 30 Jun 93 09:32:18 -0400 Subject: Sheva Merachef In mj v7n107 Arthur Roth gave an excellent exposition on the concept of "sheva merachef". He is correct in stating that there are two theories among grammarians to explain the behavior of what would be two adjacent sheva'im at the start of a word where the first sheva becomes a tnua k'tana while "beged kefet" after the second sheva does not get a dagesh. One theory is that of "sheva merachef" and the other that of a "tnua kalah" or "tnuat ezer". The theory of "tnua kalah" claims that what appears to be a tnua k'tana is really a different form of vowel (tnua kalah) whose influence extends to the letter following its succeeding sheva. This convoluted explanation is requiredto explain the lack of a dagesh following a sheva nach. Many grammarians find this theory problematic as we have created both a new kind of tnua and exception behavior for the sheva. A more elegant explanation lies in the theory of "sheva merachef". This theory claims that the first sheva becomes a regular vowel (tnua k'tana). The second sheva behaves as if it were a sheva nach with the exception that "beget kefet" after it does not take a dagesh. According to both theories, the sheva (under the second letter) is pronounced as a sheva nach. If we were to make the sheva a sheva na, we would be creating more problems as we would now have the first syllable as a "havara p'tucha" without negina [accent] which should take a tnua gdolah. Since by all accounts the tnua under the first letter is a tnua k'tana, the sheva MUST be a sheva nach. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <KANOVSKY@...> (Mechael Kanovsky) Date: Wed, 30 Jun 93 11:47:49 -0400 Subject: Why did Miriam die in the Desert? I had a question on parshat chukat (actualy my chevrutah asked me the question and I couldn't find an answer for it) Why did Miriam die in the midbar (desert) why didn't she get to enter eretz yisrael. I would be quite suprized if she also was part of the "chet hamiraglim" and she did not participate in the trangresions of moshe and aharn. For the l "lashon harah" that she said against Mosheh hse was already punished, so again what was her "chet". Also without opening a whole can of worms, what does rashi mean when he says that Miriam died like Mosheh and Aharon i.e. "mitat nishika" (being kissed by g-d) but the torah did not write it explicitly since it is not "kavod hamakom" to write such things i.e. g-d kissing women. mechael kanovsky ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Elisheva Schwartz <es63@...> Date: Tue, 29 Jun 93 14:18:45 EDT Subject: Wigs Much of the discussion so far has implicitly ranked non-wig head coverings as less halakhically problematic than wigs. This makes sense to me, as well. Does anyone know, however, where the opposite sfora comes from?: namely, that a wig is more correct than a scarf? In Boro Park there are yeshivas and Beis Yaakovs that won't accept children of women who cover their hair with a scarf (and I mean cover every hair, so that's not the question) but only if she wears a wig. (?!) Thanks Elisheva Schwartz ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 8 Issue 7