Volume 23 Number 02 Produced: Sun Jan 28 23:37:52 1996 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Administrative Detention (reply) [Shmuel Himelstein] Civil Disobedience [Chana Luntz] Laws of Pidyon Shevuyim [Michael J Broyde] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Shmuel Himelstein <himelstein@...> Date: Fri, 26 Jan 1996 13:56:21 +0200 (IST) Subject: Administrative Detention (reply) After all the allegations and statements regarding my posting on administrative detention, I believe a reply is in order. First of all, it would appear to me fundamental that disagreements about issues be limited to them - and not to ad hominem attacks, as to why "the poster appears to show such sympathy for a non-Jewish population that continues to show its hatred for the Jewish State." Surely that is not a reasoned argument to my basic posting. As to the various issues involved: a) My point in indicating the fact that thousands of Arabs had been detained in administrative detention as opposed to the very small number of Jews, was to indicate that if one is interested in justice, it must be justice for all. If administrative detention is wrong - and I'm not sure, given the situation, that it is wrong - then it is wrong for all. If administrative detention without trial is deemed to be valid where there is the danger of terrorist acts by Arabs, I see no reason why we should be blind to the fact that Jews, too, can pose a danger to the Jewish State. May I remind readers that there have been at least two Jewish underground organizations whose avowed purpose was to blow up the Al Aqsa mosque. Ignoring the Halachic/Aggadic implications ("the third Temple will be built with fire"), there is no doubt in my mind - and I would assume in the minds of most of us - that such an act would have brought about a major war between Israel and the Muslim countries. Would it be improper to use administrative detention against members of such an underground just because they are Jews? Common sense would appear to me to say that such an approach would be absurd. b) While I had deliberately refrained in my posting from mentioning the individual involved who is now under administrative detention, because I was interested in a Halachic discussion of the issue, some of the posters seemed to me to be more interested in discussing the particular case at hand. In the circumstances, I would like to point out that Israel's Supreme Court reaffirmed the administrative detention of the individual involved, so it is not as if there had been no legal recourse. In his ruling, Justice Barak pointed out - as had been published in the Israeli press weeks ago - that that individual had been found to have fourteen full magazines of bullets in his home. The quantity involved certainly seems to be far beyond the amount a person needs for personal protection. Furthermore, the individual involved had been a member of the JDL and then of Kach, and had evidently been involved in attacks against Palestinians. Thus the court felt that in the precarious situation at present, the administrative detention was justified. I find it interesting that the common knowledge regarding this individual's arms cache seems to have "conveniently" not found its way to the American Jewish press or Jewish public. Am I paranoid in believing that this might have been a deliberate attempt to smear the government by showing how it puts innocent civilians in administrative detention? Wouldn't a suppression of such vital evidence in some of the Jewish press serve to substantiate their constant allegations that Israel is a "police state"? (Parenthetically, I remember well that when I was a Shaliah Aliyah in the early 1980s - when the *Likud* was in power - I had a conversation with the editor of one of the American Jewish newspapers, who told me then that it was clear to all [but, I must admit, not to me]that Israel is a Police State ... The more things change, the more they remain the same - "Police State" is evidently a clear attention-grabber and sure to increase sales.) c) One of the posters claims that - unlike the Arabs who were detained - the present individual was never informed of why he was held. How the poster is aware of the "fact" about the detained Arabs beats me. I certainly have no idea either way. As to the individual in question, after the police seized the quite extensive cache of bullets in his home - and I assume that he was aware that they did so - any protestation that he was unaware why he was detained seems to me to ring rather decidedly hollow - and especially given his evidently numerous brushes with the law in the past. Doth the American Jewish press protest too much? d) One of the posters posits that the reason we should help this particular administrative detainee is Pidyon Shevu'im - redemption of a captive. As best as I understand this, this law refers to a person who was seized by brigands for the specific purpose of ransom. I fail to see what the parallel is to the present case. This person is being held/detained because the law officials feel that he may potentially be a danger to public order. To my mind, this has nothing in common with Pidyon Shevu'im. e) Another comment made by a poster was that "No British man in London was ever put in administrative detention." That may be correct. However, at present, according to the present-day Northern Ireland (Emergency Provisions) Act 1991, a police officer of commander rank is able to authorise the stopping and searching of people for a period of up to 28 days "were it appears" to them "that it is expedient to do so in order to prevent acts of terrorism." Now, should one claim that this only applies to Northern Ireland, there has been a move in England to extend this law - and a slew of others like it - to all of Britain, following the bombings in London. Thus, even the "cradle of democracy" has considered curtailing individuals' liberty where the potential threat of terrorism exists. Surely no one believes that Israel is less at risk from terrorism - and given the Rabin assassination it is clear that the danger is not only from Arab ranks. e) Historically, one may also point out that at the time of "the troubles" in Ireland, regulations were passed in 1922 under which the Minister of Home Affairs for Northern Ireland was empowered "to order the detention of a person arrested on suspicion of having committed against the Regulations, and to order the internment of a person *suspected of being about to act in a manner prejudicial to the preservation of the peace and maintenance of order in Northern Ireland*" (my emphasis - SH). The High Court of Ireland subsequently upheld these regulations. f) Now, taking matters closer to home for Americans, how would the American readers of this forum feel about administrative detention if thereby the World Trade Towers and the Oklahoma City bombings could have been prevented? If by administrative detention Israel is able to possibly prevent a major conflagration in the Middle East (imagine another Hebron massacre or Al Aqsa being blown up - not that the person involved at present was involved in any such plans!), would it not be reasonable for it to resort to administrative detention? Where would those posters who disagreed with me draw the line? Would they have agreed (when the Likud was still in power) to a law placing under administrative detention anyone who sought to hold a dialog with the PLO? g) One poster differentiates between the Arabs, who as a group "were quite vocal in their opposition to the State," and "who used violent means" toward overthrowing it, and the Jews, who were the ones attacked. I wonder if the poster realizes that there are groups of Jews within the State who have sought to overthrow it by violent means and to replace it with a Halachah State. At least one such individual whom I know served time for being involved in just such a plot. Are we to assume that just because this only applied to a marginal group that the State should disregard it? Let us remember that Yigal Amir, too, belonged to a marginal group. h) Finally, one poster seems to think that the Arabs that were placed into administrative detention were potential terrorists, while the present government used the same law to place under detention Jews who would be guilty of nothing worse than civil disobedience. In my view,both the former and latter allegations have no basis in reality. At the height of the Intifada - along with the many Arabs who were locked up and who were clearly a danger to the State as potential terrorists - many were locked up for having been caught painting PLO slogans. By the same token, anyone who reads the news thoroughly in regard to Israel - and not the sanitized pap spread by Jewish newspapers with axes to grind and a desire to increase circulation - will find that there have indeed been Jews who have been involved in what can only be termed terrorist activities, at first again Arabs and then against Jews. To dismiss this truth is to belie history. It is in light of all the above that I again renew my request for a discussion of the major issue at hand: what does Halachah have to say about the situation at hand? Should we Halachically have been obligated to protest detention? And if so, under what circumstances? That, to me, is the crux of the question. Shmuel Himelstein <himelstein@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chana Luntz <heather@...> Date: Sat, 27 Jan 1996 20:20:41 GMT Subject: Civil Disobedience Yossi Goldstein writes: > Do you want me to believe that all things being equal then it is OK > to lock up these people? If they locked up Arabs whom they suspected of > being possible terrorists then it is OK to lock up Jews because they may > cause civil disobedience? I would really like to focus on this assumption about the legitimacy of civil disobedience. Because I have heard quite a bit that seems to imply that it is halachically mutar, and I am not sure that it is. Of course a lot would hinge on the halachic analysis one applies to the Israeli government. The dati leumi world, as i understand it, has traditionally followed the position of Rav Kook. Rav Kook, as I understand him, in turn relied on the halachic societal structure as understood by the Rambam and further developed by the Ran, in which there is a kind of duel track system - the 'ideal' one of the Sanhedrin and the more pragmatic one of the King. The further development involved viewing the leadership of the Jewish people, even in some form of Council as having the halachic status of King. Rav Kook took this one step further, and endowed the Israeli leadership/government with the status of Jewish King. This is in contrast to the Charedi world, that either refused to recognise any form of legality to the Israeli government at all (the Neturei Karta) and thereby held that the only legtimate government were Arabs such as Yasser Arafat, or took the attitude that the Israeli government should be treated as if it were a non Jewish government such as the Turks or the British, and to the extent that dina d'malchusa dina applied in the Land of Israel (and I believe some hold that it does) therefore one was bound to follow Israeli law in the same way one was previously obligated to follow British or Turkish law, but no more than that. Obviously if one followed either of the two latter approaches, the whole issue of giving up land is a non issue, since the Israeli government is either not entitled to be ruling at all, or it is as if one non Jewish government is transferring sovereignty to another - ie as if the Turks gave it to the British. So I always understood the position of those opposed to the current policies of the Israeli government vis a vis the shtachim to be based on the approach of Rav Kook. The problem with that though is that there is quite extensive halachic material on the appropriate way to relate to a Jewish King - and it would seem to me that civil disobedience towards a Jewish King is completely assur. For example the Rambam hilchos melachim perek 3 halacha 8: 'All who rebel against a Jewish king, the king has permission to kill him. Even if he decrees on one of the people to go to a particular place, and he doesn't go, or not to go out of his house, and he goes out, he is chayav misa. And if he wants to kill him he can kill him. As it says 'whoever rebels against thy command' (Yehoshua 1:18). And anybody who scorns the king or who insults him, there is to the king permission to kill him ... and he is permitted to forbid and to strike with whips for his honour'. The Rambam then goes on to emphasize in halacha 9 that this does not mean that we listen to the king if he tells us to violate a mitzvah. The issue is discussed in Sanhedrin 49a, which dicusses the pasuk in Yehoshua. The full pasuk is 'whoever rebels against your command, and will not listen to your words in all that you command he shall die, only be strong and of good courage', where this last phrase is understood to exclude the case where the king commands against breaking the Torah. On the other hand, if the king is permitted to kill a person, all his property goes to the king (Sanhedrin 48b, Rambam 4:9) and a king cannot be mochel on his kovod (Rambam 2:3). Now on the basis of all that, i can't see how one can engage in civil disobedience in relation to a Jewish king. Take for example the blocking of the highways in Israel. Even if what one is protesting about is a violation of the halacha, so one doesn't have to listen on that particular issue, clearly the law that says the highways may not be obstructed is a decree of the King which is not in volation of halacha, and hence anybody doing it is in violation of a legitimate decree and hence chayav misa. And it doesn't seem to matter on the quality of the King. After all, we learn out these dinnim from the situation of Navos and Achav. And it seems clear that the problem was that with Navos it was a trumped up charge, ie he never did what he was accused of doing - but if he *had* in fact cursed Achav, it would have been legitimate for Achav to have killed him and taken his vineyard. And Achav doesn't exactly get rave reviews as a king, being one of the three who does not have a chelek in Olam HaBa (Sanhedrin 90a, having done a lot for avoda zara, and killing off prophets etc) So i would be interested in knowing on what basis civil disobedience is assumed to be halachically permitted, and why it is it is halachically considered wrong for the Israeli government to lock somebody up, administratively or otherwise, who has been, at the very least, expressing sentiments diminishing its kovod. And it seems to me that there might well be a distinction here between Jews and non-Jews, in that non Jews are not commanded in the same mitsvos that we are, so this requirement of kovod, or certainly this level of requirement for the king may just not apply. In addition, where the king in question never accepted them as subjects (as was the case in the territories, where the land was never formally annexed and the Arabs retained Jordanian citizenship and so presumably looked to King Hussain, if not to Yasser Arafat as their king), it seems far less clear that any such halachos would apply. Any comments? Chana ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael J Broyde <relmb@...> Date: Sat, 27 Jan 1996 20:02:34 -0500 (EST) Subject: Laws of Pidyon Shevuyim One writer wrote in response to a post about the detention of an American Jew by Israeli authorities as a security risk: > Clearly, there are Halachot of Pidyon Shevuyim that apply to *Jews*. > Why does the poster appear to show such sympathy for a non-Jewish > Population that continues to show its hatred for a Jewish State? While that is true, it implies that the rules of pidyon shevuim applies to all who are taken captive, even by lawful authorties for a genuine crime. I do not believe that such an implication is supported by the halacha. One is obligated in pidyon shevuim only when the captives are "starving, abused, naked, or in danger of lose of life" (rambam tzedaka 8:10) and as the Aruch hashulchan notes "this was in times of old and now in the desserts of Asia and Africa when bandits fall on travelers and hold them captive for ransom" (YD 252:1). I do not believe as a matter of normative halacha that a person who is arrested by the legal authorties and who are properly detain people for crimes is covered by this halacha. Thus, a Jew who is arrested for robbing a bank is not covered by the obligation of pidyon shivuim. In short, while the obligation to free captive does apply even when the bandits are Jewish, I do not think the obligation ever applies to people arrested for general crimes, independent of their Jewishness and which are generally considered violations of the law of the land. Whether this applies to the person under current administrative detention fits this category or not is a matter for others more trained in Israeli law that I. Michael Broyde ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 23 Issue 2