Volume 42 Number 92 Produced: Tue Jun 8 6:55:01 US/Eastern 2004 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: 24/48 hour candles [Stan Tenen] Bameh Madlikin [Martin Stern] Bameh Madlikin and Hassidic custom [Perets Mett] Guidelines for Tzedaka [Daniel Cohn] Hebrew Board Books [Michael Rogovin] Israeli perspective [Tzvi Stein] Marrying someone with your mother's name? [Bernard Raab] Meat with Fish _Broth_? [Stan Tenen] Say Cheese... [Michael Rogovin] Source of Directions [Martin Stern] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Stan Tenen <meru1@...> Date: Wed, 02 Jun 2004 07:58:28 -0400 Subject: Re: 24/48 hour candles >From: <chips@...> > > I like the 48 hour ones better, especially for Rosh Hashannah, than > > the 24 hour. It's more reliable. Every few years the Israeli 24 hour > > ones go out early. Almost every year my next door neighbor and I > > "take turns" needing a light for the second night of RH. > >2 suggestions: > > 1: freeze the candle - laugh all you want, but my 24 hour frozen >candles have yet to last less than 28 hours and have gone up to 35 >hours. > > 2: Light the second candle 3pm - nothing says you have to wait >till night of the 2nd to light the second candle. Light it at 3 (or >whatever) then warm your hands or check your fingernails with it. It must be much cooler in the room where your candles are than where my candles are. We have been freezing Shabbos candles for many years. This only helps sometimes, and when it helps, it only helps a little. There are two problems with Shabbos candles. 1) The "freeze" wears off in a room at normal room temperature, in about 15 minutes. So, at most, that's the only benefit. (The heat capacity of wax is far less than that of water, so it cools and heats much faster in the same environment.) 2) The vast majority of Shabbos candles fail because the wick melts through to the outer edge (since it was not centered during manufacture), or it droops over and melts the outer part of the candle. This causes a runaway side-burn and meltdown. Freezing can affect how the wick gets started, however, and often this is where freezing can have a useful effect -- sometimes. Other times, freezing causes the wick to fail before the candle becomes fully lit. Which leads to a question. If a Shabbos candle wick goes out before the blessing, I assume it can be re-lit, and then the blessing said. Yes? The problems with 24- and 48-hour candles are: 1) Again, the freeze wears off at normal room temperature in much less than an hour. (The mass of wax of the 48-hour candles is usually much greater than that of Shabbos candles, so it takes longer for them to return to room temperature -- but not hours longer.) So, it has very little effect. 2) The wick is not sturdy enough, or fat enough, so it never quite gets the wax going, and then it just goes out by drowning itself in melted wax. Freezing does affect how the wick gets started, however. The lesson is, _all_ candles that I'm aware of that are currently available are unreliable, and all candles are fire hazards. This does not have to be. It seems to me that making candles for Shabbos and holiday use, etc., that are dangerous or unreliable is as close to the definition of "making a stumbling block" as I can imagine. How is it that the Torah community tolerates this mostly unnecessary unreliability and hazard? Is it just a matter of making the cheapest possible candle? And is this actually appropriate when an improperly made candle can cause difficulty and/or danger? I've even begun to see 48-hour candles made in Israel that are in plastic, not glass or metal, containers or jars. Even if the plastic is not supposed to be flammable -- which is unlikely -- this has to be insane. Best, Stan ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 11:27:52 +0100 Subject: Re: Bameh Madlikin on 3/6/04 10:29 am, I. Balbin <isaac@...> wrote: > Namely,that Bameh Madlikin's insertion was (if my memory serves me > correctly) designed to delay the davening to accomodate those who were > a touch late and wanted to be Mekabel Shabbos with Borchu together > with the congregation. I was always told that the recital of Bameh Madlikin was so that latecomers would not be left in shul and therefore obliged to go home on their own which was dangerous in Talmudic times when shuls were out in the fields. Putting it at the end of ma'ariv would then make a lot of sense. Unfortunately coming late to davenning is still a problem with many people. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Perets Mett <p.mett@...> Subject: Re: Bameh Madlikin and Hassidic custom Seth Mandel wrote: > The answer to that is that Bameh Madliqin was said right when the > Sha'Tz said qiddush; in many communities in Ashk'naz, it was said > concurrently. Chasidim abandoned the saying of qiddush in shul, > probably because they woiuld accompany the rebbe and stand around his > shabbos tisch, where he would say qiddush. When they dropped the old > custom of saying qiddush in shul, they dropped saying Bameh Madliqin. That may well be a plausible explanation of the reason why chasidim stopped saying Bameh Madliqin, but let us be clear as to the correct reason why chasidim stopped making kidush in shul on Friday and YomTov nights. It is nothing do with standing around the tish of a rebbe. The mechaber says in Shulchon Orukh that the custom of saying kiddush in shul should not be instituted in new communities (as the reason for it is n o longer applicable) but should be maintained in old communities which already have the custom. In matters of tefilo chasidim frequently adopt the psak of the mechaber, and that is why they did not institute kiddush in shul when they founded new minyonim. It may well be that as a result the saying of Bameh Madliqin fell into disuse, as Seth suggests. Perets Mett London ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Daniel Cohn <cohn3736@...> Date: Wed, 2 Jun 2004 01:17:16 -0400 Subject: RE: Guidelines for Tzedaka In his submission on guidelines for tzedaka, Meir brings a comprehensive list of what type of income is "tzedaka liable". Now let me ask a simple question - assume a person makes $50,000 in "liable" income, and has $48,000 in expenses (mortgage, car, tuition, groceries, bills, etc.) which according to the book Meir quotes would not be deductible. So do we make this person give $5,000 to tzedaka and incur in a $3,000 debt each year? Or what about someone whose income is less than his expenses in a certain year, should he get even more in debt in order to give 10% to tzedaka? I don't think this makes any sense. When I asked my rabbi he said that one should take "basic expenses" out of the liable income. He also said that since there today giving maaser is a minhag, there are no "official guidelines" as to what is liable and what is not. Daniel ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael Rogovin <rogovin@...> Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 09:24:18 -0500 Subject: Re: Hebrew Board Books Jonathan Katz asks: > Does anyone have information on how to find board books (for babies) in > Hebrew (in the US)? Try Sifrutake (www.sifrutake.com; 800-737-8853; <sales@...>) They are the premier Israeli book and music store in the US. They have stores in Brooklyn and Queens (NYC) and I have purchased Israeli board books and other children's books there. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Tzvi Stein <Tzvi.Stein@...> Subject: Israeli perspective I just had an interesting phone call with a "chareidi" friend in Israel, the gist of which was basically, "What the heck is wrong with all you American Jews and your rabbis? There has been a clear psak from the gedolei haDor for two weeks already that sheitels are avoda zora, and you're all still carrying on like nothing has changed! We keep sending chashuve rabbonim over there to explain it and you still don't accept it!" He seemed quite passionate about the issue. He even stressed that burning the sheitels is not sufficient... one must then bury the ashes, and that all this applies even in the case where there is a slightest doubt that a single hair in the sheitel may have come from India, and that this doubt would apply to all human hair sheitels. Apparently all "chareidi" Jews in Israel have accepted this psak and the walls are plastered with signs attesting to the psak, signed by all the gedolei haDor. My friend seemed to view this as a serious schism between American and Israeli Jewry. After I hung up with my friend, I immediately went to ask highly respected local posek if there was any news on "the sheitel issue", and he said that he is still investigating it and, for now, unless you are sure the sheitel has Indian hair, it may continue to be worn. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Bernard Raab <beraab@...> Date: Wed, 02 Jun 2004 13:27:10 -0400 Subject: Marrying someone with your mother's name? Batya Medad wrote: > Before neighbors (who are very machmir, ashkenazim) married they had to >check if it was ok, because his second/middle name was the same as her >father's first. They were told that since he didn't use the name, it >was ok. Then over twenty years later when her father died, their >married kids wanted to name baby boys after "grandpa" and were told by >very respected poskim that they couldn't use the exact name, since it's >also the father's, and he's (ad meah v'esrim) still alive. This minhag apparently does not apply to Sephardim. I know a family where the first-born of every son is named after the grandfather, who is very much alive (ad meah v'esrim). This is clearly intended to honor the grandfather. Perhaps our Sephardic listers can tell us if they have any minhag which might hinder a marriage if the partner has the same name as a parent of the bride or groom. b'shalom--Bernie R. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Stan Tenen <meru1@...> Date: Wed, 02 Jun 2004 18:18:08 -0400 Subject: Meat with Fish _Broth_? I know the majority opinion is clearly that one should not eat fish with meat. There's also a minority opinion that it's okay. I'm wondering, assuming that it's not okay, where the dividing line is. Here's a hypothetical I'd like some feedback on. Let's say I prepare totally vegetarian tofu "meat" balls, and I use a _dash_ of OU-Fish Worcestershire sauce as part of the seasoning for a couple of pounds of tofu balls. Let's say nobody likes tofu balls, and I have lots of leftovers. Is there any possibility of my taking the tofu balls that have a small amount of Worcestershire sauce, which itself has an even smaller amount of fish broth and/or pulverized anchovies as an ingredient (and no fish bones, or any solid part of the fish), and mix it with 2 lbs of real beef hamburger. Is this kosher? And if it's not kosher, why not? How dilute does the fish in the fish broth in the Worcestershire sauce in the tofu balls have to be, for it to be acceptable to mix the tofu balls with hamburger? If there is no lower limit -- why? And just to make things even more extreme, what if, upon calculation, it turns out that the amount of actual fish in the fish broth in the Worcestershire sauce in the tofu balls is at "homeopathic" concentrations -- in other words, essentially nil? Nevertheless, the mixture wasn't an accident. I did deliberately put the Worcestershire sauce into the tofu-ball mix. There is no possibility here of mistaking the final product for anything but fleischig, because the two pounds of meat would be very noticeable, and it would not be possible to mistake this either for fish or anything else pareve. Also, there is no possibility of accidentally being injured by swallowing fish bones, because we're dealing with fish broth, and/or at worse, pulverized anchovies -- i.e., no bones. Please respond on-list or off-list, as you choose. I really would like some feedback on when, if ever, it's permissible to allow a small quantity of fish liquid to be used with a large amount of meat. Many thanks. Best, Stan ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael Rogovin <rogovin@...> Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 09:46:54 -0500 Subject: Say Cheese... The topic of cheese has come up in mj with some frequency so I thought it was worth noting that some rather good kosher cheese is making its way to the US. I recently purchased cheese from Italy that was excellent and the store was also selling cheeses from France, Germany, Denmark and an excellent new comer from the US: Sugar River Cheese in Wisconsin. Cheese seems to be catching up with wine as new imports and domestic production finally gives us choices from the bland, low quality stuff that is typically found (and for those who don't know, Migdal, HaOlam, Millers, KoSure and Tam Tov are all one company and are the same cheese; although I note that Millers is now private-labelling some better quality cheeses, including goat and imported Italian cheeses). Also, Tnuva has a new US distributor and is expanding its imports and some smaller Israeli boutique dairies are entering the US market as well. According to a recent article in the Jewish week http://www.thejewishweek.com/news/newscontent.php3?artid=9477 and my own research, the following stores (all in Manhattan or NYC area) are carrying them: Eretz (Israeli products), Zabars, Fairway, Fairway, Citarella, Ideal Cheese, www.igourmet.com, www.kosheritalia.com, Glatt Express-Teaneck, and Supersol-Westchester), www.vtbutterandcheeseco.com, www.sugarrivercheese.com Michael ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 11:18:39 +0100 Subject: Re: Source of Directions on 3/6/04 10:03 am, Shimon Lebowitz <shimonl@...> wrote: > When I first saw you saying that Arabic used left and right for North > and South, I assumed this was in parallel with ancient (and Biblical) > Jewish usage. > > So, what would make you think that this is based somehow on Mecca? And > how can the directions be relative to Mecca which looks to me to be > pretty far south, or west of most of the Arabic world? The parallel is obviously correct but I would imagine Arabs would understand it with reference to Mecca or the Hejaz, their centre in the Arabian peninsula (in a N-S direction), which lies between Syria to the North (Ash-Sham) and Yemen to the South (Al-Yamin). Clearly both we and they enumerate points of the compass as if standing at a central point facing East. If I am not mistaken ancient maps had East at the top, not North as is our convention today. Can anyone confirm this? Martin Stern ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 42 Issue 92