Volume 44 Number 01 Produced: Mon Aug 9 7:05:23 EDT 2004 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Basis of Discussion about Rabbinate [Joseph Ginzberg] Cohen Modal Haplotype [Eitan Fiorino] The Cohen Modal Haplotype [Ken Bloom] Jewish Genetics [Seth Ness] Kohanic "Choice" [Janice Gelb] Kohen Gene (some basic genetics) [Martin Stern] My Uncle did not get Smicha from his Father in Law [Ira L. Jacobson] Pants and Psak [Martin Stern] Spelling of names [Nathan Lamm] Three Kohen Points (v43n95) [Nathan Lamm] The word "Meshulach" [Andy Goldfinger] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Joseph Ginzberg <jgbiz120@...> Date: Thu, 05 Aug 2004 14:05:44 -0400 Subject: Basis of Discussion about Rabbinate >[And your response will evoke another response from those on the other >side of the discussion, so this will clearly not end this thread. Mod.] I agree that my own opinion is just that, as long as there is no proof or Rabbinic authority behind it. However, even open-mindeddiscussions in Torah should have a "baseline" to meet in order to stay within a halachik framework. Everyone knows "innocent until proven guilty" or "muchzak" or "hamotzi Mchavero" (rules of possession) or similar concepts, which indicate that a certain "given" is to be the standard ruling until proven otherwise. Orthodox Judaism has always insisted on the concept of "Yeridat Hadorot", the lowering of spiritual level from one generation to the next. This is why Rabbis today are (generally) not allowed to debate the rulings of earlier accepted decisors. An example would be the famous dicta "If the Rishonim were angels, we are only men. If they were men, we are only donkeys, and not even like the donkey of R. Pinchas ben Yair". It appears clear to me from this that the honor of the Rabbis of previous generations is to be strictly respected until there is indisputable evidence that they have misbehaved in some way. It is known and I think undisputed that at various times there have been "Rabbis" that have been appointed by various governments for secular reasons, and that these persons have for the most part been unsuited for the position. However, the original posting implied that many/most of the Polish Rabbis in the 18th century were not only such, but that they were the "promoters" of the Pilpul style of Torah learning. This is, to me, highly derogatory and disrespectful, in addition to being suspect for the illogic mentioned in the earlier posting. My issue is thus that as an orthodox site, the "given" should be a rejection of slurs on any Rabbi, let alone an entire nations admitted Talmedei Chachomim, especially those of earlier generations, until proven. There were many reasons for the emergence of Chasidut, but putting it on the shoulders of the established "corrupt" Rabbinate and their stress on pilpul seems to me to reveal a non-acceptable and non-halachik agenda. Yossi Ginzberg ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Eitan Fiorino <Fiorino@...> Date: Thu, 5 Aug 2004 12:33:02 -0400 Subject: RE: Cohen Modal Haplotype >From: <MJGerver@...> (Mike Gerver) > >So Aharon's Y chromosome haplotype would be shared by most men who had a >common paternal line ancestor with Aharon within about 1500 years >before him. This includes not just kohanim, but all of the sons of >Yaakov, as well as Esav, Ishmael, Lot, Moab, Ammon, and, for all we >know, many ancestors of the Southern and Central Italians, Hungarians, >Iraqi Kurds, and Armenians. In the case of the Lembas though, the >simplest explanation is that they are indeed, as they claim, descended >from Jews who migrated from Yemen about 1000 years ago. I knew there was something wrong with this; it took me a while but I finally figured it out. The whole idea behind the Cohen modal haplotype is that it was discovered as a marker somewhat unique to kohanim. In other words, the investigators looked for genetic markers - little snippets of genetic code - that were found regularly in the Y chromosomes of self-identified kohanim but not among non-kohanim. So the idea that the high frequency of the kohen modal haplotype in these various non-Jewish populations could be explained by a shared common ancestor such as Avraham doesn't make sense, since the marker is not found commonly among Jews who are not kohanim. The numbers from the original paper describing the phenomenon are not incredibly mind-boggling, by the way. The Cohen modal haplotype was found in 45% of 44 Ashkenazic kohanim and 32% of 81 Ashkenazic yisraelim; for Sephardim the numbers are 71% of 24 kohanim and 33% of 39 yisraelim. A second study by the same group found the marker to be found in 45% of 49 Ashkenazic kohanim and 13% of 68 Ashkenazic yisraelim, and 56% of 57 Sephardic kohanim and 10% of 51 Sephardic yisraelim. The marker is even less frequent among leviim, 81 of whom were included in the second study. There is no commentary on why the frequency of the marker in non-kohanim is so different in these two studies, which is a little strange. I have not looked to see if further studies on the frequency of the marker in kohanim vs. non-kohanim have been published since these were in the late 1990s. Another word of caution before getting all hyped up about this so-called kohen gene - the same methodology that led to the conclusion that this modal haplotype was a good marker for kohanim also found broad genetic diversity among the Y chromosomes of Leviim and concluded "contemporary Levites, therefore, are not descendants of a paternally related tribal group." -Eitan ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ken Bloom <kabloom@...> Date: Thu, 5 Aug 2004 09:31:05 -0700 Subject: Re: The Cohen Modal Haplotype > I think making any assumptions about ancient ancestry based on modern > looks is extremely difficult and even dangerous. In general studies of > genetic markers have revealed tighter groupings between geographically > diverse groups of Jews than between Jews and their local non-Jewish > populations. Obviously there has always been some influx from the local > gene pool owing to conversions of locals to Judaism, and this modest > influx could potentially account for some of the physical differences > one can observe between mizrachi and European Jews. This is also very close to arguments concerning a "master race". To my knowledge, there is no significant genetic difference between the various races in America, despite the early intent of some to prove that blacks were inferior by demonstrating that they were genetically inferior. The biggest physical difference I can see between Sepharadim and Ashkenazim is that Sepharadim have darker skin, attributable as an adaptation to a warmer, sunnier climate (darker skin is more effective against sunburn and the cancers that can come with it.) (Rather, since we all came from Eretz Yisrael, it's more likely that Ashkenazim lost the darker skin because they weren't adapting against sunburn) To: Mail Jewish <mail-jewish@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Seth Ness <sln8@...> Subject: Jewish Genetics Anyone interested in the subject of the cohen modal haplotype and levi and yisrael genetics may benefit from looking at this recent paper which should be freely available to all. http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/AJHG/journal/issues/v73n4/40097/40097.html The article discusses the ashkenazi levi haplotype and reviews and provides references to major previous works on jewish genetics. Allow me to add two nitpicks... 1. there is no cohen 'gene' ; the haplotypes are generally composed of anonymous microsatellites and polymorphisms that are not part of genes. they differ between groups by variation not by presence or absence. 2. the Y chromosome can indeed recombine with other chromosomes (X). the haplotype happens to be in a non-recombining portion. Seth L. Ness ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Janice Gelb <j_gelb@...> Date: Thu, 5 Aug 2004 16:24:16 -0700 (PDT) Subject: Re: Kohanic "Choice" <MJGerver@...> (Mike Gerver) wrote: > Several posters have pointed out that a kohen cannot, in general, > decide to give up his kahuna and marry a divorcee or a convert. [snip] I did not mean to imply that this was a halachically valid or approved choice. What I was trying to say was that if a kohen *did* marry a woman forbidden to kohanim (in defiance of the law), he would then have to give up the privileges of his kahuna and would be in a state of impurity. Similarly, if my rabbi and his sons had continued living as they had been before they learned that they were kohanim, without restricting themselves to the laws for kohanim, they would be in a state of impurity and not be able to take on the privileges of kohanut. -- Janice ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Thu, 05 Aug 2004 17:05:59 +0100 Subject: Re: Kohen Gene (some basic genetics) on 5/8/04 2:19 pm, Ken Bloom <kabloom@...> wrote: > Now, supposing a Kohen were to have a child with a non-Jewish woman. The > result would be a non-jewish child with the Kohen gene. So I can say > tentatively that a child is a kohen if and only if he has the kohen > gene, and he is known to be Jewish. This is not true. The son of a kohen from a woman forbidden to him as a kohen is 100% Jewish but is a challal and not a kohen. If the mother were forbidden to him as an ervah (incest or adultery) the child is 100% Jewish but is a mamzer and not a kohen. In both cases he will carry the kohen gene. Ken should have stated his test as "if a child does not carry the kohen gene there are strong grounds to suspect that he is not a kohen". Another case of where the converse of a true statement is not true! Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ira L. Jacobson <laser@...> Date: Fri, 06 Aug 2004 17:09:02 +0300 Subject: Re: My Uncle did not get Smicha from his Father in Law <FriedmanJ@...> (Jeannette Friedman) stated the following on Fri, 6 Aug 2004 08:23:32 EDT, first quoting me: the Minhas Elozor gave semikha to the Munkacser Rov. No he did not. My mother says no way. SHE WAS DEFINITE. BARUCH YERACHMEIL YEHOSHUA RABINOVICH DID NOT GET HIS SMICHA FROM HIS FATHER IN LAWS. He got the smicha from a group of rabbis, and I have a call into the Dinever Rebbe to get the names. I seem to have made an error. What I meant to have written was that the Minhas Elozor gave semikha to the Minhas Yitzhok (who was actually the subject of my post). I apologize for the error, and also point out that I believe the surname of the Minhas Yitzhok, as he wrote it in English, was Weisz and not Weiss. IRA L. JACOBSON mailto:<laser@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Martin Stern <md.stern@...> Date: Fri, 06 Aug 2004 13:05:03 +0100 Subject: Re: Pants and Psak on 6/8/04 11:41 am, <Shuanoach@...> wrote: > Can someone explain to me why people are making diyyukim in a statement > of R. Sheer as if it were a teshuva of Rav Moshe Feinstein? Because it is almost impossible to believe that it was a general hetter as quoted. When we see what he really said I am sure it will prove to have been either a misquote or a hora'at sha'ah to a certain person in certain very limited circumstances and not for general publication. Martin Stern ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Nathan Lamm <nelamm18@...> Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 07:07:38 -0700 (PDT) Subject: Spelling of names Batya Medad writes of the spelling of her cousins' names. It should be recalled that spelling in general was not standardized until relatively recently (which is why a Briton would spell it "standardised"), and names specifically were not- Shakespeare, for example, never seems to have spelled his name the same way twice (see the opening scene of a recent film for a cute exposition of this). This, in fact, is true of two branches of my family who are related to each other maternally closely and paternally distantly- and the spelling of the last name is slightly different. Nachum Lamm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Nathan Lamm <nelamm18@...> Date: Thu, 5 Aug 2004 19:13:14 -0700 (PDT) Subject: Three Kohen Points (v43n95) -Andrew Marks wonders if a safek can cause one to "choose" not to be a kohen. Mike Gerver (in v43n94) asked about two s'fakot, for the kohen and his prospective wife. I imagine this is the most likely scenario, but like Mr. Marks, I still wonder: Safek D'Oraysa L'Chumra, and we are dealing with D'Oraysot here. -Gershon Rothstein gives the original source for the Gra story. I wonder if I'm reading it right: It seems the Gra had a specific issue with how his father redeemed him, and so did it himself again as an adult. Then, because kohanim don't have a yichus, he gave five rubles to many others. At least, I hope that's the story. Because if the main issue with the original (by his father) pidyon was the lack of yichus, then how would he make a bracha (safek l'kula)? He could give five rubles to any kohen he wanted, of course, but I can only see him making the bracha once, and not even that if it was just a safek. -Akiva Miller wonders if kohanim assimilated less. Indeed, I once heard Rebbetzin Faige Kahane (wife of Rav Nachman Kahane, both noted for a number of accomplishments, including the Center for Kohanim) say that it's quite possible that as kohanim had a number of other marriage restrictions, they were more careful about intermarriage as well, hence their greater numbers. And, as Mr. Miller says, even a small difference could add up. Nachum Lamm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Andy Goldfinger <Andy.Goldfinger@...> Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 08:24:15 -0400 Subject: The word "Meshulach" There has been much recent discussion calling charity collecters "meshullachim." Am I correct in assuming this word comes from the root "Mem-Shin-Ches," and hence that the word means "one who is sent," i.e. a messenger or an agent. Hence it would originally have been used to refer to a person collecting money on behalf of another person or institution. Isn't it then incorrect to call a person collecting for themselves a "meshuach?" Is there a more correct term? ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 44 Issue 1