Volume 49 Number 44 Produced: Tue Aug 9 5:23:58 EDT 2005 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Gay Child Molestation (2) [Mordechai, Avi Feldblum] Gender and Sex (2) [Meir, Avi Feldblum] Hard-wired sexuality? (2) [Bernard Raab, Tom Buchler] Sexual Imprinting? [Leah S. Gordon] Sexual preferences hard wired [Fen] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mordechai <mordechai@...> Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 21:44:21 -0400 Subject: Gay Child Molestation R E Sternglantz wrote >Child molestation has nothing to do with homosexuality, typical or >otherwise. Most child molesters/pedophiles are heterosexual males. Actually it has alot to do with homosexuality. The same arguements can be used for both. Gay activists argue that they were born this way because no one would choose such an unpopular orientation. Advocates of adult child sex use the same arguement. Historically gay relationships, such as shown in ancient Greece have been between older men and children. I recommend people who are concerned about this issue to review the organization NAMBLA [pro-pedaphilia organization. Mod.] http://216.220.97.17/ website. For example they note http://216.220.97.17/pederasty.htm "...Pederasty is the main form that male homosexuality has acquired throughout Western civilization - and not only in the West! Pederasty is inseparable from the high points of Western culture - ancient Greece and the Renaissance...." Additionally they bring how many mainstream gay activists support adult child relations The gay rights movement is the child molestors movement as well. Once society starts writing marriage contracts for consenting adults it will start to move to lower the age of consent to allow any child to choose to have sex with adults. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avi Feldblum <avi@...> Date: Tue, 09 Aug 2005 Subject: Gay Child Molestation I feel compelled to point out that just because NAMBA ties itself to mainstream gay rights activists, that does not mean that mainstream gay rights activists support NAMBA. In addition, it is my personal opinion that arguements such as the above is basically an attempt to avoid any real discussion about the Frum and Gay issues that are real ones that need to be dealt with by our community. Pretty much no-one is trying to support a Frum and NAMBA in our community. Avi ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <meirman@...> (Meir) Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 23:13:24 -0400 Subject: Re: Gender and Sex >From: Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> > ...Theodore Bernstein's 1958 book, "Watch Your Language", states: >"Gender pertains to grammatical distinctions, sex to physiological >ones", I agree with this citation and all the others you made. Since I've been alive during most or all of the effort to add a new definition to "gender", I feel qualified to comment. People began to use "gender" instead of "sex" because "sex" sounds too.... sexual. They were embarrassed to say "sex". > But to my mind, it's a politically correct misuse. This is the only sentence of yours I disagreed with. I don't think there is anything political about it. It's about modesty. Misplaced modesty, but still. Since we are or I am talking about avoiding words, another word commonly avoided, in America and I'm sure many other places, is "Jew". More than half of the people I hear, both Jews and gentiles, will go out of their way to say "Jewish person" instead of Jew. If you haven't noticed this yet, you probably will if you try. Their motivations are usually positive, but their reasons are sad. The Christian Bible and Christian hate mongers have made Jew a dirty word, so people who don't dislike us try to find a "nicer" word to refer to us with. This has been confirmed to me when I asked open-ended questions of one gentile and one Jew. Both said that "Jew" sounded harsh. Of course, if the sentence refers for some reason to a Spanish person and a Swedish person, it should finish with a Jewish person. But you will hear people talk about a Spaniard, a Swede, and a Jewish person. Often, neither Jew nor Jewish person violates parallelism, or there is nothing parallel in the sentence, and in such cases, "Jewish person" is ten to one more likely to be used. "Jewish people" is very often used to avoid saying "Jews" but not quite as often as with the singular. I think the best way to handle this is to repeat the sentence someone else has said, replacing "Jewish person" with Jew, until those people get the idea that Jew is a good word. We should also start using "Jewess" whenever it fits the sentence. That appears to be another word the antisemites have given a negative meaning to in the ears of many, but even if this can't be proven, it's a good word and we should use it. Meir <meirman@...> Baltimore, MD, USA ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avi Feldblum <avi@...> Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 23:13:24 -0400 Subject: Re: Gender and Sex In regard to comments by <meirman@...> (Meir) and Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> on usage of Gender to refer to sex based catagories as incorrect, largely based on earlier 20th century texts. I think I was one of those who used Gender in that fashion, and I do not disagree that it is not the original usage of the word. However, if you look at almost any current modern English dictionary you will find the second usage as well. Here is a Usage Note from the American Heritage Dictionary online: Usage Note: Traditionally, gender has been used primarily to refer to the grammatical categories of .masculine,. .feminine,. and .neuter,. but in recent years the word has become well established in its use to refer to sex-based categories, as in phrases such as gender gap and the politics of gender. This usage is supported by the practice of many anthropologists, who reserve sex for reference to biological categories, while using gender to refer to social or cultural categories. According to this rule, one would say The effectiveness of the medication appears to depend on the sex (not gender) of the patient, but In peasant societies, gender (not sex) roles are likely to be more clearly defined. This distinction is useful in principle, but it is by no means widely observed, and considerable variation in usage occurs at all levels. And here is the entry from the Compact Oxford English Dictionary: gender . noun 1 Grammar a class (usually masculine, feminine, common, or neuter) into which nouns and pronouns are placed in some languages. 2 the state of being male or female (with reference to social or cultural differences). 3 the members of one or other sex. . DERIVATIVES gendered adjective. . USAGE The words gender and sex both have the sense .the state of being male or female., but they are typically used in slightly different ways: sex tends to refer to biological differences, while gender tends to refer to cultural or social ones. Avi Feldblum ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Bernard Raab <beraab@...> Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 18:04:33 -0400 Subject: RE: Hard-wired sexuality? >From: Sammy Finkelman <sammy.finkelman@...> >From: Ari Trachtenberg <trachten@...> >>...There are, for example, cases of identical > > twins (i.e. genetically identical) where one twin considers herself > > homosexual and the other does not. > >There are not just isolated cases. The number is at least 50%. Which >means, you are forced to agree, that no more than 50% of male >homosexuals can be hardwired at birth. And that is a ceiling, a maximum, >not a floor. There is so much that is wrong about this posting that I do not have the koach to address it all. Just one illustration of the logical fallacy in his thinking: Finkelman seems to think that because in the case of identical twins where one sibling claims to be homosexual, only about half of the other siblings are likewise homosexual ( if this data is to be believed), that this "proves" that, at most, only 50% of homosexuals are "hardwired", i.e., have no choice in their sexual preference. But I wonder which of the twins was "hardwired" and which freely chose their sexual orientation. He doesn't say. I am guessing he thinks that the gay sibling is the one who chose to be gay, and the straight sibling was hardwired. But he might have just as reasonably claimed that the reverse is true: that the gay sibling was hardwired and the straight twin made the choice! In fact he goes on to argue, with no more justification in observation or in science, that sexual orientation is pretty much always a choice, determined by some early "imprinting". BTW, he seems to assume that such twins are always the offspring of homosexual couples (as if such couples can have offspring!). But there is nothing in the article he cites to establish that impossible "fact". Just another illustration of his completely non-scientific predisposition. Hopefully, others will go on to complete the demolition of this posting. b'shalom--Bernie R. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Tom Buchler <tbuchler@...> Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 11:55:42 -0400 Subject: Re: Hard-wired sexuality? From: Sammy Finkelman <sammy.finkelman@...> ..... Another point, The number of homosexuals. This has been greatly exaggerated. It is not 10% of course, nd not 3% and not even 1%. I think the true figure in the United States of America is more like 1/3 of 1%. I calculated this several ways. One way I did was to take the number of homosexuals who had died of AIDS as of the year 1991, which was around 100,000. I then guessed at what percentage of all homosexuals alive in the year 1980 this might be. This surely was at least 1/3. It was described and perceived as a plague - people dying all over. If 1/3 then the total original number of male homosexuals in the United States in 1980 was about 300.000. There were about 100 million males in round numbers. Do the arithmetic and you get a proportion of 3 in a thousand. If the percentage was higher than 1/3 by the end of 1991 than the percentage of male homosexuals was even lower. And if it was lower, then the death rate was higher - there is a one to one correspondence between the two figures - even if you don't know the exact numbers, one is a function of the other. While we don't know the exact numbers we do know that certain estimates are reasonable and others are not. You cannot go by polls, by the way, because whenever the true incidence of anything is below 1% or 2% polls are probably useless. OK. Let's presume you can't go by polls. So instead you start with a figure based on a poll indicating what number of people who died of AIDS in 1991 where homosexual (how does one get the percentage of homosexual versus heterosexusal AIDS deaths other than by asking, or are dead homosexuals and heterosexuals are easier to distinguish from one another than live ones?), and then GUESS what percentage of all homosexuals alive in 1980 (whose number we can't know because we can't rely on polls) died of AIDS by using the word PLAGUE to say at least 1/3? So I should take the number 0.33% based on shaky numbers extrapolated by means of a guess as more reliable than a 10% figure based on asking people whether they are something that many are reluctant to admit? Please pardon my vitriol, but give me a break about what is or is not reasonable! -Tom ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Leah S. Gordon <leah@...> Date: Mon, 08 Aug 2005 06:17:03 -0700 Subject: Sexual Imprinting? Sammy Finkelman wrote, in part: >It is quite true that male homosexuals cannot be changed. The way I >explain this fact is that men are *imprinted* by their first sexual >activity. But it no more inherited or destined at birth than is I find this idea preposterous. The vast majority of US teenagers have both heterosexual and homosexual "experimental" sexual experience in high school, regardless of eventual (or initial) orientation. If you mean that in some cases of abused children, their sex lives are informed by their victimization, then I would have to agree. But to say that someone (and why do you you limit yourself to males btw?) is imprinted by their first sexual encounter...what evidence do you have? And, how would this explain those first-hand accounts we saw right here on M.J of frum gay men married to women, who couldn't keep themselves from straying and having a gay affair? Or the cases of women who divorce after long marriages, and take up happily with other women? --Leah S. R. Gordon ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Fen <fenellam@...> Date: Mon, 8 Aug 2005 16:16:58 +0200 Subject: RE: Sexual preferences hard wired I am not familiar enouigh with the history of this debate to know where it is going halachically, or learned enough to comment on the halachic issues, but as regards the hardwiring issue, I have met many different types of people and worked in mental health (where a disproportionate number of clients seemed to be lesbians - this could be a whole chicken or egg debate). It is clear that human preferences/ disposition for anything come in a continuum, with various shades of grey inbetween. It is not as simple or monolithic as a 'genetics' vs 'environment' debate. Some people describe very clearly always feeling sexually different to the rest of society and seem to look different as well - very masculine women and very feminine men, which may seem to be a cliche but there are such examples and from my observations they are the ones who describe feeling that they were born homosexual. That would seem to be a 'hardwiring' issue. Other people describe having a traumatic experience with members of the opposite sex, or their parents, and then learning gay behaviour / preferences. Clearly that is environmental factor on top of a genetic predisposition - many people have had bad experiences and they don't all end up homosexual. There can also be cases where it is purely behavioural / peer group pressure. I knew someone who was happily married to a man who had been sexually abused as a teenager at boarding school, and as his first sexual experience was homosexual, he was thereafter conditioned to react sexually to members of his own sex. I think he had counselling and retrained his thought patterns. It could also be that some people are more conditionable than others as a result of genetics. As to statistics, in the UK it was quoted that 10% (ie 1 in 10) of people were gay or bisexual. I suspect it is rather lower in the Jewish population, though whether as a result of Har Sinai, different conditioning, lack of acceptability or plain inability to admit to it, is anyones guess. Fen ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 49 Issue 44