Volume 51 Number 80 Produced: Wed Mar 29 5:56:22 EST 2006 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Dialects vs. mispronunciation [Mark Symons] Hoiche Kedushah [Gilad J. Gevaryahu] Jewish vs. non-Jewish calendars [Hillel (Sabba) Markowitz] Mispronunciations [Orrin Tilevitz] Second Day of Yom Tov revisited [Richard Fiedler] Second Day of Yom Tov revisited -> Jews in Eretz Yisrael [Richard Fiedler] Tinok Shenishba [Shayna Kravetz] Two Dinim in Minyan and Counting a Mechallel Shabbos [Tal Benschar] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Mark Symons <msymons@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 23:02:54 +1100 Subject: Dialects vs. mispronunciation David Mescheloff <david_mescheloff@...> wrote: > I am always struck by those chazzanim who say, on Friday night, > "beini u-vein bnei yisroel, osee (or oisee, it doesn't matter) l'olam". > The way the phrasing (punctuation) comes out, to my ears it sounds like > they're proclaiming proudly that they forever stand in the way between > G-d and the children of Israel. To mean that you'd have to say "ani l'olam". Mark Symons ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <Gevaryahu@...> (Gilad J. Gevaryahu) Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 10:31:50 EST Subject: Hoiche Kedushah I was asked by some for the etymology of the expression "Hoiche Kedushah" which is used to denote a shortened davening where the silent amidah is skipped and the ba'al tefilah starts with chazart hashatz up to and including ata kadosh. This is done often when time is short such as school break, airports or when minchah is started late. Hoich in Yiddish means high, tall, loud, exalted (Weinreich, p. 641), and in our case it means loud Kedushah. The expression itself is the left over of a whole sentence in Yiddish meaning to start with a loud Kedushah. I assume it was originally something like: Zu unheiben mit hoiche kedusah. Interestingly, this expression is used regularly in the US (I heard it in Philadelphia and New York), but I never heard it used in Israel. Gilad J. Gevaryahu ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Hillel (Sabba) Markowitz <sabba.hillel@...> Date: Mon, 27 Mar 2006 07:52:54 -0800 (PST) Subject: Re: Jewish vs. non-Jewish calendars --- <MJGerver@...> wrote: > Hillel Markowitz writes, in v51n72, > > > Of course, since the chodesh was determined by eidim until the > > destruction of the bais hamikdash, they could recalculate each month. > > However, the gemoro says that during galus bavel, they used a fixed > > calendar, since the beis din could not declare the chodesh by means of > > eidim. > Still, they would not have needed anywhere near the accuracy of the > present fixed calendar, in order to be good for 70 years. Yes but the gemoro and the meforshim state that the value used was "halacha leMoshe misinai" and that beis din had the calendar from the beginning. It was only because of the final destruction that Hillel Sheni made the takanna to use the fixed calendar only. I doubt that they would have called a new number culled from the nonJews as "halacha leMoshe misinai". An interesting point is the gemoro in Rosh Hashana and in Beitza 22b (which is where I just learned it) that from the time of Ezra on, Elul had never been a 30 day month. Rabbi Reisman in one of his recent shiurim used this to point out that "Mekadesh Yisrael Ve'Hazmanim" meant that beis din always declared the month of the chagim. They were never *forced* into a 30 day month of Elul or Adar. The modern group in Eretz Yisrael which always attempts to see the new moon (I forgot the name - I saw the reference in Torah Tidbits) says that in order to spot it, the eidim had to have exact knowledge of where and when to look as it is very easy to miss. Hillel (Sabba) Markowitz | Said the fox to the fish, "Join me ashore" <Sabba.Hillel@...> | The fish are the Jews, Torah is our water ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Orrin Tilevitz <tilevitzo@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 09:02:50 -0800 (PST) Subject: Mispronunciations I wrote: > I think there are three categories of dialect "mispronunciation": > (1) when the mispronunciation doesn't really change the meaning > (amo--amei); > (2) when it results in seeming nonsense (hi eleikainee, hi avini) > (3) when it results in a change a meaning, to possibly blasphemous or > comic effect (oz-eiz; the discussion of harat-haras).> Avi Feldblum responded: > I think it is incorrect to describe "dialect" differences in the > consistent pronunciation of hebrew letters / vowels as > "mispronunciation". It is not necessarily incorrect if your frame of reference is wholly within a different dialect. But the difference between this sort of "mispronunciation" and the hodo/hodu type is precisely why I put the word "mispronunciation" in quotes in my original posting. > I see it as having little more value than the fun childrens song that > uses hebrew words that phonetically sound like English words (he is > she and who is he). Please explain why pointing out dialectic differences must have "value" beyond that of an intellectual exercise. But it actually does: the existence of these differences and their effects on meaning inform the discussion - an open issue in poskim - about whether someone using one dialect may layn or be sheliach tzibur in a minyan of predominantly a different dialect and, if so, which foreign dialects are acceptable. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Richard Fiedler <richardfiedler@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 18:25:55 +0200 Subject: Re: Second Day of Yom Tov revisited (Rabbi) Meir Henoch Hakohen Wise wrote: > I would like to testify that when I and other rabbis and rabbinical > students visited Moscow and Petersburg in the 70s we found no-one who > was expert in the Jewish calender as a result of the ban on Jewish > education which commenced in 1918! I first would question if their problem was really that they wanted to observe a Hag but didn't know the correct day and could not find a way of learning it. Second I don't believe it would be possible to do an exhaustive search of the existence of anyone who knew the dates of the holidays in the 70's in Russia. But more important the situation that developed in Russia hostile to the Jews could have in the past had developed in Aretz Yisrael yet no one had the hava mina that residents of Eretz Yisrael should observe two days of Yom Tov. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Richard Fiedler <richardfiedler@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 03:24:22 +0200 Subject: Second Day of Yom Tov revisited -> Jews in Eretz Yisrael Yakir wrote: Reading the Ramba"m (Sefer HaMitzvot - Positive 153) indicates that if there were no Jews in Israel the calendar would not simply be "undefined" but there would be no way to celebrate any Yamim Tovim, Roshei Chodashim etc etc. Also - "Am Yisrael" would be considered to have ceased to exist ! (Please insert "Heaven forbid" "Chas v'Sholom" liberally in the above). I certainly agree with the literal application of "Chas v'Sholom". But I don't understand why no Jews in Israel would imply that ""Am Yisrael" would be considered to have ceased to exist !" In fact it is my contention that if indeed the admonition of Beitzah 4b: 'Be careful to keep the custom of your ancestors because a time may come when there are anti-religious persecutions, and all will be confused.' is talking about "anti-religious persecutions in Eretz Yisrael" and not as is presumed in Hutz L'Aretz one can better understand the Rambam - per your citation. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Shayna Kravetz <skravetz@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 11:33:56 -0400 Subject: Tinok Shenishba After Tsvi Lieber <tlieber@...> wrote: >> The closest parallel is the opinion that reform and >> conservative marriages are not considered to be acceptable halachically. >> This may be viewed as terrible in its philosophic implications but on >> the other hand, in the case of children of extramarital affairs or >> children of remarriages without a get for the first reform/conservative >> marriage, it may very well prevent the possibility of mamzerut. > Janice Gelb <j_gelb@...> replied: >I hope I am misunderstanding this response: do you really mean to be >implying that Reform and Conservative Jews are more likely to have >extramarital affairs? Also, for your information, Conservative rabbis >are absolutely forbidden by the movement to perform a second marriage >without a religious divorce. I suppose Tsvi Lieber will speak for himself but I did not read his response as in any way suggesting that R or C Jews are more likely to commit adultery. Only that, /if/ they do, there is an obvious halachic solution to avoid the issues of mamzerut. While it is true that a Conservative rabbi will not officiate at a remarriage in which one party has not gotten a get, a Reform rabbi will, as they accept the civil divorce as sufficient. Thus, marriage #1 could be in any stream of Judaism and, if marriage #2 is in a Reform context, the problem of marriage #1's persistence can arise. If marriage #1 was Orthodox, the problem of children from marriage #2 is much more difficult to solve than if it was either Conservative or Reform. As for the "terrible...philosophic implications" to which Tsvi Lieber alludes, I suspect that it's not so much that the non-Orthodox have less respect for their marriage vows, as that the Orthodox will be seen to have less respect for marriage vows taken in non-halachic contexts. Kol tuv and a freilichen and kosher Pesach. Shayna in Toronto ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Tal Benschar <tbenschar@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 10:17:26 -0500 Subject: Two Dinim in Minyan and Counting a Mechallel Shabbos "I have, in my posting, mentioned in passing two functions of minyan: kiddush hashem (as in kedusha) and tefillah betzibbur (praying with a community). R. Moshe has a very controversial teshuva, where he distinguishes between these two functions. " Mark Steiner's post inspired me to write about this topic, which is more complex than most of the posters have allowed. 1. There is a Teshuvas ha Rambam which states that one may NOT count Karaites to a minyan. This is the very same Rambam who came up with the famous categorization of "Tinok she Nishbah" and applied it children who are raised in the Karaite "faith" (for lack of a better term), so it would appear that that category does not, by itself, resolve the problem. The Rambam also bases this psak on a very cryptic reason -- he cites a Mishna in Eruvin that "mi she eino modeh be eiruv eino mitztaref le eruv" -- whomever does not accept the rabbinic concept of an Eruv cannot be joined into an Eruv. (The Sadducees at the time of Chazal were the principle group at issue.) The connection between that halakha in Eruvin and minyan is not apparent. 2. Rav Moshe Feinstein also has a cryptic statement in one of his teshuvas. There is a Machlokes between Rashi and Tosafos in Megillah about saying a davar she be kedusha which requires ten. Rashi holds that even if nine have already davened, if one person arrives late he can say kaddish, barchu, etc. Tosafos, however, maintains that one requires that at least the majority of the minyan be made up of those who have not yet davened. (The Rambam holds like Tosafos). The Shulchan Arukh states that lechatchila we require that at least six have not davened, but b'dieved we rely on Rashi and permit even one person who has not yet davened to say kaddish and borchu before nine who have already davened. Rav Moshe Feinstein's psak indicates that the counting of the mechallel Shabbos is dependent upon this view of Rashi, which we only accept bedieved. Why this should be so is not immediately obvious. 3. I once gave a shiur on this topic where I suggested that the explanation to both issues is the same thing. As Mark Steiner wrote, a kiddush Hashem may simply be the act of an individual who is doing that act BEFORE a minyan of ten. (Think of a person who is giving up his life al kiddush Hashem in a yehareg v'al yaavor situation. While a minyan needs to be present, clearly only that individual is doing a kiddush Hashem.) This is the paradigm followed by Rashi -- a statement of kedushah BEFORE a minyan. But sometimes, the halakha requires a TSIRUF -- a combination of people for a particular purpose. This can be a public prayer or creation of an Eruv -- a combination of the domains of the various householders in that area. The Mishna in Eruvin tells us that if one does not accept the halakhic obligation or concept for which the group is combining, then one cannot join that group. That is why the Rambam -- who holds like Tosafos that one requires a combination of a tsibbur, of whom the majority need to be obligated in davening -- did not permit counting Karaites to a minyan. 4. R. Moshe Feinstein apparently held that for a davar she be kedushah, lechatchila a tsiruf is required, bedieved, like Rashi, it is not. For other halakhos -- notably tefilla be tsibbur -- a tsiruf IS required. That seems to make perfect sense -- tefilla be tsibbur does not mean the tefilla of ten people who happen to be together -- it is the collectively communal prayer. For that, one needs a joining into the community and the halakha of "mi she eino modeh be eiruv eino mitztaref le eruv" would apply. 5. I should point out one other thing. The halakha of "tinok she nishba" is not a magic talisman that dispenses with all halakhic issues. The Teshuvas ha Rambam I quoted proves that one can be a "tinok she nishba" and yet there are still halakhic issues. Tinok she nishba, in its most basic conception, means the person has a din of an anus -- he is under duress and not culpable for his actions. The person may therefore not be responsible for his sins. He may still lack certain positive requirements -- like "modeh be Eruv" -- which certain halakhos require. ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 51 Issue 80