Volume 51 Number 81 Produced: Wed Mar 29 6:02:25 EST 2006 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Chazaras Hashatz [Hyman Schaffer] Hiking on Shabbat [I. Balbin] Lay-Person Selling Chametz [Leah S. Gordon] Minyan: Biblical or Rabbinic? [Chana Luntz] Portable Eiruv for Camping [Mike Gerver] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <hlsesq@...> (Hyman Schaffer) Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 13:04:55 -0500 Subject: Chazaras Hashatz In recent times, it is no longer unusual to hear the shaliach tzibbur say Hashem s'fosai tiftach and yihiyu l'ratzon out loud during chazoras hashatz. The shulchan aruch and ramoh in OC 123:6 write concerning whether the shatz should say these psukim (with at least the GRA concluding that he should say both during the chazoras hashatz), but it is unclear whether the intent is that they should be said aloud as any other part of the chazoras hashatz (seemingly in accord with the view of the gemara that they are part of the tefilla) or should be said in an undertone. This past Shabbos, our rabbi emeritus, returning from a rabbinic conference attended by, among others, several Israeli chief rabbis and chief rabbis of several European communities,implicitly criticized those who have started saying the psukim aloud by observing that no shatz at the conference did so.And, truth be told, when I learned to daven for the amud, from a musmach of the Chofetz Chaim yeshiva, he did not tell me to do so, nor did he when he acted as shatz.(As far as I recall, neither did the Rav) So, as far as I can tell, this practice seems to be a recent innovation. Does anyone have any information on how this halacha is supposed to be implemented (ie, saying aloud or in an undertone) or experience from older Roshei Yeshiva or pulpit rabbis as to how they conducted themselves? Hyman Schaffer ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: I. Balbin <isaac@...> Date: Wed, 29 Mar 2006 08:55:07 +1100 Subject: Re: Hiking on Shabbat > On Sun, 26 Mar 2006 18:36:16 EST <MJGerver@...> (Mike Gerver) wrote: >> If you want to go for a hike on shabbat, you can twice as far if, >> before shabbat, I'm not aware that hiking on Shabbos is permitted, irrespective of Eiruvin considerations. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Leah S. Gordon <leah@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 06:23:39 -0800 Subject: Lay-Person Selling Chametz Mark Symons writes: >The general way of selling one's chametz is to give one's rabbi >power-of-attorney to do so. But is there a suitably worded form >available that would allow one to sell directly to a non-jew eg your >neighbor? > >If this is regarded as too halachically complex for a lay-person to do, >then surely it is no more complex than the concept of chametz, >especially the "chametz that tends to adhere to the surface of pots" >etc, which I imagine would have to be explained to the non-jew buying >the chametz from the rabbi. I thought the issues were in terms of making sure that the sale is totally valid and that the person has access to his/her ("your") chametz, which I agree should be something we can manage on our own, but it is honestly a lot easier to depend on the Rabbi. BUT, I did ask and got permission years ago, to sell my office-based chametz to a nonJewish colleague. I actually gathered up the stuff and he gave me some money (73 cents I think) and he said, "I am going to keep this, and who knows if I'll agree to sell it to you or anyone else." He said this in answer to me explaining both how the "sale" usually works but that in halakhic fact, it needs to be a real sale. And he took my things to his cubicle: e.g. my hot-pot, oatmeal packets, mug, whatever. After the chag, I think he'd eaten some of it :) but agreed to sell me back the hot-pot. --Leah ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Chana Luntz <Chana@...> Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 23:18:31 +0100 Subject: RE: Minyan: Biblical or Rabbinic? Mark Steiner writes > Chana Luntz wrote: > > Interestingly though, the most explicit statement I am aware of that > > indeed minyan is d'rabbanan is found in Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah > > (hilchos avadim) siman 267 si'if 79): "It is permitted to free [a > > slave] for a dvar mitzvah even m'divreihem [ie d'rabbanan] like if > > there is not 10 in the synagogue one can free his slave and thereby > > complete the count of ten". > > I believe we must distinguish between two issues: (a) what constitutes a > minyan; (b) what is the obligation to pray with a minyan. There is no > contradiction in saying that (a) is a Torah definition, only in a minyan > do we have the mitzvah of kiddush hashem; (b) the obligation to pray > with a minyan, even though there is a Torah fulfillment of a mitzvah > therein, is only an obligation d'rabbanan. I am assuming when you say the mitzvah of kiddush hashem, you mean the classic definition of the obligation to allow oneself to be killed rather than to violate a halacha (ie the primary derivation of "toch") with that mitzvah only applying if in front of ten. That indeed may well be a Torah derivation (Nor do I believe that the Ran, whom I previously quoted, when he says that the derivation "toch" "toch" is an asmuchta b'alma meant the derivation that required ten for the mitzvah of kiddush hashem in this sense, as that was not the matter he was discussing but rather the mishna in megilla which lists the requirement of ten for various aspect of davening). Rather what is being discussed is the requirement to have 10 when saying borachu, kaddish and kedusha and to pray with a minyan, all of which are rabbinic obligations, all of which are listed in the mishna in megilla, not where the torah obligation of kiddush hashem is discussed in Sanhedrin, and hence, as the Ran says, the derivation from kiddush hashem is an asmuchta b'alma. Now you appear to be saying that we can separate the abstract concept of minyan from the obligation for which that minyan is deemed constituted - even though making up the minyan is not in and of itself a mitzvah. While that is an interesting idea (although it would seem to be in contradiction to the Ran) I struggle to see how that distinction by itself results in any practical terms. In a later post you write: >Even if the OBLIGATION to pray with a minyan is rabbinic, the MITZVAH >accomplished (kiddush hashem, tefillah betzibur) is certainly >considered a Torah fulfilment (the famous distinction between a Torah >obligation, vs. a Torah fulfilment, alleged to be a "Brisker" >distinction, but is obviously much, much earlier). But then, unlike your previous post you have a problem with precisely the halacha that I brought, where the Shulchan Aruch states clearly that freeing slave may be done even for a rabbinic mitzvah (d'var mitzvah m'divrehem) like if there is not 10 in the shul and the slave is freed to make up the 10 and enable the mitzvah of davening to take place. But according to you, this is not a rabbinic mitzvah at all, it is a rabbinic obligation, but the mitzvah that is then accomplished is from the Torah, thus undermining a whole strand of rishonic discussion on the subject of freeing slaves, based on the action of Rabbi Eliezer. > This is clear from many passages in the Talmud, where it is assumed >that the merit of teflliah betzibbur does not derive from legislation >of human beings. That would seem to suggest that, according to you, if one fulfils what you acknowledge to be a full fledged rabbinic mitzvah, then the merit derives only from the legislation of human beings? It seems to me that the underlying premise of this is in dispute with the understanding that the obligation for any rabbinic mitzvah is based on the Torah obligation of "lo tasur" (D'varim 17:11)[you shall not turn aside] , which is the basis upon which the gemora in Shabbas 23a holds that we are able to say on any rabbinic mitzvah "asher kidishanu b'mitzvotav vitzivanu" - who has sanctified us with you commandments and commanded us [to light channuka lights in the case the gemorra is discussing there]. In that one statement there is both your sanctification and your Torah command. But you seem to be saying that there is no sanctification or command in the general case, only in the specific. The understanding that one can say both kidishanu and v'tzivanu by any rabbinic mitzvah, is of course the source of the famous question as to why is it that we do indeed say safek d'rabbanan l'hakel [we go leniently in the case of doubt for a rabbinic mitzvah] in any case, when every rabbinic mitzvah is really a Torah mitzvah? (the classic answer, given, I think by inter alia the Mecshech Chochma, is that this is because that too is what the rabbis legislated, ie they required precisely this distinction to be made). So this seems to me to be no different from any other case. If the Rabbis instituted a particular mitzvah, such as kedusha, and required as part and parcel of that mitzvah that there be a minyan, then the requirement for that minyan is Rabbinic. If somebody were then to break into that minyan and hold a gun to one of the participants heads and demand that they violate halacha, the torah obligation of kiddush hashem might then come into play, and part and parcel of that is a Torah requirement of minyan. The fact that there is a related Torah mitzvah does not make the rabbinic mitzvah a torah one, any more than the fact that the existance of a torah mitzvah to take a lulav on first day sukkos makes the taking of the lulav on the remaining days of sukkos any less rabbinic (and so on and so on). And the rules about what to do in cases of doubt follow the rule of which kind of taking it is. Where I thought you might pick me up on is the argument that while minyan is rabbinic, perhaps the psul of a mechalel shabbas b'farhesia is from the Torah, really making them in a d'orsia sense like a non Jew. Note however that Rav Ovadiah holds not (see Yabiat Omer Yoreh Deah siman 11) - and despite the fact that this would seem, as Rav Ovadiah brings, to be a machlokus rishonim, it seems pretty conclusive that we do not posken this way (as I think you and I discussed previously on this list). Regards Chana Luntz ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <MJGerver@...> (Mike Gerver) Date: Tue, 28 Mar 2006 15:48:08 EST Subject: Portable Eiruv for Camping Martin Stern writes, in v51n78, about establishing a tachum shabbat for a camping trip, that is not centered around the place you are planning to spend the night, This is completely INCORRECT. One can only use one of the eiruvei techumin and then only if one said when setting each of the four up that it would only be an eiruv if it is decided on shabbat that it and none of the others is one. Without such a condition one becomes a 'chamar gamal' and cannot go anywhere outside the enclosed area of one's camp. I think you misunderstood what I meant, and, since several other people had the same misunderstanding, I guess I didn't say it clearly. I was not suggesting setting up several eruvei tachumim and deciding on shabbat which one to use, or even using more than one of them. I was suggesting, if you decide before shabbat that you want to hike in a certain direction on shabbat, establishing a single eruv tachumim a little less than 2000 amot in the direction you plan to hike. You can then go another 2000 amot beyond that eruv. However, the total range over which you can hike is still only 4000 amot, since you cannot go very far at all in the opposite direction from your campsite. (If the trail goes diagonally, or winds around, then the total length of the hike can be even longer.) As Martin points out, if you can't make up your mind before Shabbat, and you have time to go around setting up extra eruvei tachumim, then you can keep open the option of deciding which direction to go until you begin your hike on shabbat, as long as you make this condition before shabbat. Once you decide which eruv to use, of course, you cannot use the others. Also hanging it on a tree makes it inaccessible on Shabbat (mishtameish be'ilan) and invalidates the eiruv. What Mike presumably meant was that it should be left UNDER a tree (or some other convenient safe place). I did not mean hanging it from a tree at too great a height to reach. I meant suspending it from a tree, at a height that you can reach from the ground, so that animals have a harder time getting at it. If you leave it exposed on the ground, so that animals are likely to eat it before Shabbat, I would think that might invalidate it, since there would not be a chazaka that it was still there when Shabbat began. Not that suspending it from a tree is any guarantee that animals won't eat it. I remember the squirrels in my parents' backyard doing amazing acrobatic feats to get at the birdseed in the supposedly squirrel-proof birdfeeder they had suspended from a tree. Mike Gerver Raanana, Israel ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 51 Issue 81