Volume 56 Number 73 Produced: Mon, 08 Jun 2009 20:23:36 EDT Subjects Discussed In This Issue: A mathematical conundrum (3) [Ari Trachtenberg Akiva Miller Michael Frankel] Asher Yatzar after childbirth [Russell J Hendel] Changing Kipa [Menashe Elyashiv] Frequency of Asher Yotzer Recitation [Ira Bauman] Kaddish DeRabbanan [Steven Oppenheimer] Necessity of Kippah for Berakhot [Avraham Walfish] Wearing a Kipa at Work (3) [Ari Trachtenberg Emmanuel Ifrah Russell J Hendel] What "triggers" Kaddish D'Rabbanim (2) [Michael Mirsky SBA] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ari Trachtenberg <trachten@...> Date: Fri, Jun 5,2009 at 02:27 PM Subject: A mathematical conundrum Shmuel Himelstein <himels@...> said: > "How many days are there in the week? Seven. Hashem made it that six > plus one will equal seven." > > I realize we always talk of Hashem as being "Kol Yachol," i.e., > Omnipotent, but am I heretical to say that even Hashem could not make > 6 + 1 equal to anything but seven in the conventional meanings of six, > one, and seven? It actually depends not only what 1 and 6 mean, but also what + means. If it means concatenation, for example, then you get 61. In a finite field, 6+1 = 0. On a more philosophical level (and I generally dislike philosophy), one could say that Hashem has given us the free will to set up our own arithmetic system. Best, -Ari ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Akiva Miller <kennethgmiller@...> Date: Fri, Jun 5,2009 at 02:27 PM Subject: A mathematical conundrum Shmuel Himelstein asked: > I realize we always talk of Hashem as being "Kol Yachol," > i.e., Omnipotent, but am I heretical to say that even Hashem > could not make 6 + 1 equal to anything but seven in the > conventional meanings of six, one, and seven? I agree with you, since we're talking about the very definitions of the words. If HaShem had made 6 + 1 equal something other than 7, then that other thing would be the days of the week. It is a meaningless talking in circles. On the other hand... Someone once pointed out to me a very interesting difference between the way the Torah lists the generations from Adam to Noach, and from Noach to Avraham. In the first case (Bereshis Chapter 5) the Torah writes, "A lived for x years, and had a son named B. After B was born, A lived for another y years. So A lived for z years, and he died." But in the second case (Bereshis Chapter 11) the Torah writes, "A lived for x years, and had a son named B. After B was born, A lived for another y years." - without giving the total years of A's life. Someone tried to explain the difference to me like this: Even arithmetic is from the Torah. First, the Torah shows you that x+y=z, and gives you ten different examples to help you learn and study it. And then, ten quiz questions! I was so very tempted to malign this idea as childish and silly. But on the other hand, I've never heard a better explanation (or even any other sort of explanation) for this difference between those two sections. We who have had the privilege of learning this sort of arithmetic when we were 7 or 8 years old, don't appreciate how difficult it was for adults for many thousands of years. Akiva Miller ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael Frankel <michaeljfrankel@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 01:01 AM Subject: A mathematical conundrum Shmuel Himelstein <himels@...> wrote: > ..but am I heretical to say that even Hashem could not make > 6 + 1 equal to anything but seven in the conventional meanings of six, > one, and seven? Shmuel Himelstein 6 + 1 also equals 3(mod2), gets you to all the other odd numbers too. in fact. more generally we could write: 6 + 1 = (2N+1)(mod2) where N is any integer at all. Mechy Frankel <michaeljfrankel@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Russell J Hendel <rjhendel@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 08:01 AM Subject: Asher Yatzar after childbirth There are two responses to the question "Why don't we say Asher Yatzar after Childbirth", a question raised by several postings in recent issues (E.g. Batya in v59n69) 1) An Authorative approach: We can simply cite relevant sections of the Code of Jewish law that "We may not change the text or occasions of blessings from the texts and occasions instituted by the Sages of the Great Assembly (Anshei Kneset Haggedolah). 2) An underlying-reason approach: We can also ask "Why?" Why did the sages of the Great Assembly omit certain blessings on certain occasions. The purpose of this posting is to answer this question as it applies to childbirth. First I give a simple analogy. If you make a Motzee (Blessing on bread at the beginning of a meal) and then eat a cookie in the midst of the meal, it is well known that you do NOT make the traditional blessing on Cookies ("Blessed are you God....who creates a variety of cookie like items"). The reason for this is simple: The initial blessing of the Motzee is so to speak a super blessing and applies to all items eaten during the meal. We are not arguing that the cookie does not "require" a particular blessing; rather we are arguing that an initial super blessing already made, covers it. So too with Childbirth. Childbirth is considered (in Jewish law,) a life threatening emergency. Despite the fact that most people "fully recover" from childbirth it is still considered an emergency and e.g. you can desecrate the Sabbath for a women in labor. Because Childbirth is classified as a "life threatening emergency" one is required to bless the Gomel (The thanksgiving blessing after being saved from a life threatening emergency). But the Gomel is sort of a super blessing covering "all aspects of the emergency." By contrast the Asher Yatzar is a particular blessing covering the miracle of body orifices (Other things can go wrong during labor). It follows that because the woman makes a Gomel, super blessing, this super blessing, covers all aspects of the life threatening emergency and no other blessings need be made. This is fully analogous to not making a blessing on a cookie during a meal. Respectfully Russell Jay Hendel;PH.d. A.S.A ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Menashe Elyashiv <Menashe.Elyashiv@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 08:01 AM Subject: Changing Kipa Yes, the kipa is a statement. However things do change. Years ago there was a difference between the 2 kinds of black kippot (velvet & cloth). Today, the velvet one has replaced the cloth one in many circles and it has shrunk a bit. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ira Bauman <irabauman1@...> Date: Sun, Jun 7,2009 at 01:01 PM Subject: Frequency of Asher Yotzer Recitation Those of us who were brought up with a yeshiva education learned early on to recite asher yotzar after each instance of leaving the bathroom. I seem to recall a teshuva, I think it was the Maharil, who differed on this point. I can't find the reference now. The tshuva states that the brocho is not one of hana'ah(benefit) but rather one of of hada'ah, (thanks) and therefore only requires a recitation once at the morning prayers. We rebuckle our belts at the same time when we leave the bathroom but do not repeat ozer yisroel b'gvura. You can probably find many other examples of brachot of thanksgiving for personal events that do not require a new bracha for each time that event occurs. If someone can find that t'shuva I would appreciate it. BTW, to all those who tried to explain the phrase "Shmoy", I have just one word; Shkoych. Ira Bauman ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Steven Oppenheimer <steven.oppenheimer@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 08:01 AM Subject: Kaddish DeRabbanan The question was asked, "what triggers a Kaddish DeRabbanan?" The Talmud Bavli (Sotah 49a) tells us that the world exists because of two things, one of which is the recitation of the Kaddish DeRabbanan that is said after Aggadata. The Magen Avrohom (54:3) tells us that one must recite an Aggadata before reciting a Kaddish DeRabbanan. The Mishnah Berurah (54:9) explains that Minhag Yisroel is to recite Rabi Chananya ben Akashya Omer or Amar Rabi Chanina after any type of learning in order to be able to recite the Kaddish DeRabbanan. This is also reinforced by Shulchan Aruch HaRav who also points out that in the morning after the recitation of Korbanos and Eizehu Mekoman, it is the recitation of Yehi Ratzon SheYibaneh that triggers the Kaddish DeRabbanan. Therefore, according to above poskim, any Drasha or learning of Torah She'Be'al Peh should be followed with Rabi Chananya ben Akashya or Amar Rabi Chanina in order to be able to say a Kaddish DeRabbanan. The recitation of pesukim from Tanach is followed by a Kaddish Shalem (w/o tiskabel), i.e. a Kaddish Yasom - and not Kaddish DeRabbanan. I hope this explanation is helpful. Steven Oppenheimer, DMD <steven.oppenheimer@...> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Avraham Walfish <rawalfish@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 08:01 AM Subject: Necessity of Kippah for Berakhot Rabbi Elazar Teitz cited the Mishnah Berurah Orah Haim 2:12 as paskening "that it is absolutely prohibited to make a b'racha or learn Torah with an uncovered head. " This is indeed his language, but read in context it's apparent that MB means that when one is making a bracha or learning it is forbidden to leave one's head uncovered. The difference between these formulations is what one should do when there is an overriding reason to leave one's head uncovered - MB does not mean to say that one who has a strong reason that militates against covering his head should refrain from reciting berakhot or from learning Torah. In fact he continues by arguing that if one gets up in the middle of the night to drink and has no headgear available then he may simply cover his head with his hand (which is usually unacceptable to the MB). I believe that careful reading of MB will corroborate that he agrees that, if and when a person has legitimate reasons (anti-semitism, fear of hillul hashem, fear of losing job, etc) for not covering his head, this in no way should prevent him from reciting berakhot or learning Torah. Avie ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Ari Trachtenberg <trachten@...> Date: Sun, Jun 7,2009 at 02:01 AM Subject: Wearing a Kipa at Work Russel Hendel wrote: > 2)I have heard that Rav Hirsch paskined that you do NOT need a Kippah in > doors. His logic was that a kippah is not a POSITIVE requirement but a > NEGATIVE requirement. The requirement is not to have your head bear > since it is an affrontery to heaven. IT FOLLOWS, argues Rav Hirsch, that > this affrontery only occurs outdoors and therefore indoors there is not > even a requirement to wear a kippah. (In other words the building > ceiling functions as your kippah) I suspect this might be based on the opinion of the Maharsha"l (Rabbi Shlomo Luria), who prohibits *walking* outdoors ("under the sky") bare-headed, but not indoors (see the Baer Heitev's comment on Mishna B'rura, Orach Chaim 2:12). ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Emmanuel Ifrah <emmanuel_ifrah@...> Date: Sun, Jun 7,2009 at 11:01 AM Subject: Wearing a Kipa at Work Regarding saying a bracha with an uncovered head, Rav Teitz quoted Mishna B'rura, in Orach Chaim 2:12: "He writes that it is absolutely prohibited to make a b'racha or learn Torah with an uncovered head." In Iggerot Moshe (OC, IV:2) Rav Moshe Feinstein paskens that it is OK for someone to work without a head covering based on a number of sources (in a case where this person's parnassa depends on the job). Among these sources is the Vilna Gaon on OC 8:2 who considers that even in order to utter God's name, covering one's head is not required *mi-dina*. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Russell J Hendel <rjhendel@...> Date: Mon, Jun 8,2009 at 08:01 AM Subject: Wearing a Kipa at Work Rabbi Teitz's disagreement with my statement about making a beracha when you eat even if you don't have a kippah raises a general question of whether to, or how to, give legal rulings to people who violate the law (Perhaps we should ignore them and simply mention the proper way of behavior OR perhaps we should accept their situation and prevent further sin (See below for clarification)) Let us look at some details. In v56n67 Mark Goldin writes >I wonder if many Mail-Jewish readers in the US have struggled with the >decision to wear a kippah to work. I never did, and would eat at my desk >without saying a bracha. Note carefully that Mark describes a situation where a) he does not wear a kippah and b) eats. Look at my quandry. The Shulchan Aruch says both: a) you can not eat without saying a bracha and also b) you cannot say a bracha without wearing a kippah (I agree here with Rabbi Teitz). But this person is eating without a kippah. Therefore EITHER he will violate (a) or (b). His issue was not what he should be doing. His issue (actually my issue) was how to respond to a person not following the proper way. Therefore in v56n68 I responded > 1) You SHOULD ALWAYS say a beracha on food. EVEN if you are not > wearing a kippah. So if FOR WHATEVER REASON you are not wearing a > kippah and you are eating then make all customary beracoth (It is not > necessary to cover your head or any other "silly thing") Note again: I was not giving a blanket statement but responding to a particular situation. I therefore do not fully understand why Rabbi Teitz in v56n71 demurs to my comment by stating >The above is explicitly contradicted by the Mishna B'rura, in Orach Chaim >2:12. He writes that it is absolutely prohibited to make a b'racha or learn >Torah with an uncovered head. I don't see any explicit contradiction. Rabbi Teitz is discussing how to INITIALLY behave (if you do make a beracha be sure to have a kippah on). I agree with Rabbi Teitz. But I was commenting on a situation of not eating without a Kippah. My feeling was that the blessings were instituted by the Sages of the Great Assembly and therefore take precedence over the requirement / custom of wearing a Kippah. Rabbi Teitz's source does not address this. In passing: There is further discussion in Orach Chaim 91:3 (The Mishnah Berurah refers to the Baar Hetev who refers to the Bach and Bait Yosef). To make a long story short you are REQUIRED to PREPARE yourself for a) prayer b) recitation of the shma and b) general mention of God's name. PREPARATION has numerous forms including proper attire and head covering. Interestingly there seems to be a controversy (Rif vs Rabbi Yonah) on whether lack of preparation requires repetition of prayer (For example if you prayed in a bathing suit...should you get dressed and pray again). Here again we have the theme of legal rulings to people who violate proper behavior albeit accidentally. If we are lenient (a person who prayed in a bathing suit need not repeat the prayer) then it would follow that a person who said a blessing without a kippah need not repeat it--that is there is FULFILLMENT of saying the blessing even though you dont have a kippah. I also want to address Rabbi Teitz's criticism on my statement that "You need not put your hand on your head or other SILLY things." I should clarify. I ***assume*** that a person who is "embarrassed enough" not to wear a Kippah would also be embarrassed enough not to cover his head with a sleeve or his hand. Embarrassment is a legal concept in Jewish law and true embarrassment has the power in certain circumstances to remove Rabbinical obligations. (So my issue is "Was my assumption that he wouldn't listen to me to place his sleeve on his head in public, reasonable?") Again we deal with giving a legal ruling to someone in violation of norms. I could elaborate further. At this point I simply wanted to throw open the issue that my intent was not to deny the proper method of behavior (wear a kippah) but rather The intent was to address a situation in which a person declared he was doing something improper (not wearing a kippah) and then to address a further concern on whether saying a blessing is preferable when eating without a kippah or not (Rabbi Teitz's source does not address this). In other words should we be giving guidance to people who violate certain norms. Russell Jay Hendel; Phd ASA; http://www.Rashiyomi.com/ ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Michael Mirsky <mirskym@...> Date: Sun, Jun 7,2009 at 01:01 PM Subject: What "triggers" Kaddish D'Rabbanim I learned that Kaddish D'Rabbanan is triggered by a minyan learning both halacha and Aggadita. That's why Rabbi Chananiah ben Akashiah Omer (which is Aggadita) is added at the end of someone giving a dvar torah in order to create the need to say Kaddish D'Rabbanan for the aveilim. Michael Mirsky ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: SBA <sba@...> Date: Sun, Jun 7,2009 at 01:01 PM Subject: What "triggers" Kaddish D'Rabbanim From: Harry Weiss > In many Chabad shuls they say half of the last mishnah in Mikvaot > (Machat....) followed by Rabbi Chananiah ben Akashiah Omer and a Kaddish > Derabanan. > I think I heard it is the Rabbi Channaniah ben Akashia that triggers the > Kaddish DeRabbanan, so whatever is learned should qualify if it is followed > by Rabbi Chananiah. IIRC, the halacha is that the KD is actually triggered by learning/saying Agaddata - with RCBA being the most popular piece said. This trigger is usually pulled after learning Mishnayos. But Rabbi Berel Wein's books..!!!!???? SBA ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 56 Issue 73