Volume 47 Number 32 Produced: Tue Mar 22 7:11:32 EST 2005 Subjects Discussed In This Issue: Leaving Yerusholayim on 14 Ador [Perets Mett] Megilo [Perets Mett] Mishloach Manot [Jonathan Sperling] Not drinking on Purim [<bsbank@...>] zaycher vs zecher [Meir Shinnar] ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Perets Mett <p.mett@...> Date: Mon, 21 Mar 2005 08:34:38 +0000 Subject: Leaving Yerusholayim on 14 Ador Aliza Berger wrote: > I live in Jerusalem, but am planning to spend Shabbat outside > Jerusalem. A rabbi has been asked about this, and he answered that > it's fine to go away for Shabbat, but he still needs to be asked > whether I should say "al hanisim" on Shabbat. Apparently it's not a > problem to miss the Purim Torah reading. > I just thought this was an interesting twist that people might want to > share their thoughts on. The generally accepted opinion is that the date of Purim is determined by your location (or, sometimes, intended location) at daybreak on the relevant day. Thus anyone who is outside Yerusholayim (or a walled city) at daybreak on 14 Ador celebrates Purim on 14 Ador. Likewise, anyone who is inside Yerusholayim (or a walled city) at daybreak on 15 Ador celebrates Purim on 15 Ador. So, by leaving Yerusholayim during the daytime of 14 Ador (this Friday) you lose completely the opportunity to fulfill the mitsvos of shlach monos and seudas Purim. (However, this year, you still get to hear the megilo!) Perets Mett PS In consequence of the above rulings, my son-in-law, a resident of Yerusholayim whom travels abroad on business, has more than once celebrated both days of Purim, by virtue of not returning Yerusholayim until after daybreak on 14 Ador. He is quite used to hearing the megilo four times! ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Perets Mett <p.mett@...> Date: Mon, 21 Mar 2005 09:09:32 +0000 Subject: Megilo Immanuel Burton wrote: > While on this sort of subject, I have been told that in order to be > able to recite the blessing after the Megillah one needs 10 people to > be present, and that women count towards this number, i.e. it's 10 > people and not 10 men. Does anyone have a source for this? > 1 The primary mitsvo of reading the megilo includes pirsumei niso, ie 10 people. (O Ch 690:18). The Remo (loc. cit.) is undecided whether women count towards the ten. However he is quite clear that a brokho is recited before the reading even when an individual reads the megilo. The brokho following the megilo is recited only with a 'tsibur' (O Ch 692:1). The term 'tsibur' is not defined here. This is the source for requiring ten people present in order to say the post-megilo brokho. However there is a minority opinion (see Baer Heitev and Biur Halocho) that this brokho may be recited without a tsibur. 2 This year there is a potential issue with the brokhos before the megilo. This situation arises uniquely this year in walled cities. Since they read the megilo before the appointed day (Friday instead of Shabbos), there is a **requirement** to gather ten people for the megilo reading (M. Br. 690:61), failing which it should be read without a brokho. It is accepted in Yerusholayim that a group of ten females qualifies for saying the brokhos before the megilo. (Kol Hatorah vol 58 p366). Rabbi Yosef Chayim Zonenfeld z"l ABD Yerusholayim ruled (loc cit p 367) that, in the event that ten people could not be gathered, an individual too can recite the brokhos before the megilo. Perets Mett ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Jonathan Sperling <sperling@...> Date: Tue, 22 Mar 2005 01:51:24 -0500 Subject: Mishloach Manot In MJ 46:84, Martin Stern responded to my comment that I saw no reason why mishloach manot could not be delivered after this year's morning seudah as follows: On the contrary, the main purpose of mishloach manot is to give some food item for the Seudat Purim and so they should be sent early, in the morning, so as to be available by then. Having delayed for some time, I wanted to squeeze in a response to this before Purim arrives. As it turns out, the purpose behind the mitzvah of mishloach manot is the subject of a machloket rishonim. The Terumas HaDeshen (siman 111) writes, as Martin says, that the purpose is to ensure that every person has enough food to provide for his seudah. In his peirush on the Megillah entitled Manot HaLevi, however, R' Shlomo Alkevitz, author of Lechah Dodi, writes that the purpose of mishloach manot is to increase the sense of shalom and rei'ut among the Jewish people, demonstrating the opposite of Haman's claim that we are an "am mefuzar u'mefurad". In his teshuvot (O'C 196), the Chatam Sofer uses this distinction to explain the pesak of the Rema that if one sent mishloach manot to a recipient who refused to receive them, one has fulfilled the mitzvah. According to the rationale of the Terumas HaDeshen, the recipient's refusal to receive the gift means that one has failed to actually provide food for the recipient's seudah, and thus one has not fulfilled the mitzvah. According to the Manot HaLevi, however, the recipient's refusal to accept the gift does not detract from the fact that one has demonstrated one's sense of fraternity and love for his fellow Jew, and therefore, as the Rema paskens, one has fulfilled the mitzvah. In the course of describing this machloket, the Chatam Sofer makes an additional observation which allows us to discern the position of another rishon on this question. According to the rationale of the Terumas HaDeshen, asks the Chatam Sofer, why should one be obligated to give mishloach manot to anyone other than those who are sufficiently poor that they may not otherwise have enough food for their meal? The answer, he explains, is that Chazal chose not to distinguish among the rich and the poor in order to ensure that the very receipt of mishloach manot would not be a commentary on one's poverty and thus cause embarrassment. With the benefit of this explanation, we can conclude that the Rashbam agrees with the view of the Manot HaLevi. The Rashbam (printed in "Tosafot Hashalem" on the Chamesh Megilot) writes on the pasuk "u'mishloach manot ish l'reyayhu u'matanot l'evyonim" (Esther 9:22) as follows: "U'mishloach manot ish l'reyayhu - who does not require it, u'matanot l'evyonim - because they require them." Were the Rashbam to hold, like the Terumas HaDeshen, that the purpose of mishloach manot is to complete one's seudah, he would have no answer to the Chatam Sofer's question, because he not only includes in the scope of the mitzvah those who do not need the mishloach manot to complete their seudah, but actually limits its application exclusively to them. In light of this limitation of the mitzvah to those who do not need the food to complete their seudah, the Rashbam cannot agree with the opinion of the Terumas HaDeshen regarding the reason for the mitzvah. This dispute over the reason for the mitzvah is also evident in the dispute over how to understand the gemara's reference in Megilla, daf 7b, to Abbaye bar Abin and R' Chanina bar Abin having the custom of swapping meals ("michalfi seudatayhu behadadi"). According to the Ran and the Rambam, this means that each was so poor that were he to fulfill the mitzvah of mishloach manot, he would not have enough food left over for his own seudah. Therefore, each gave his mishloach manot to the other, allowing each of them both to fulfill that mitzvah and to end up with sufficient food to fulfill the mitzvah of seudat Purim. I believe that it is impossible to discern from this peirush a view as to the purpose of mishloach manot, since it seems to view this practice as a purely pragmatic solution to the need to perform two mitzvos when one only has the resources at hand for one. Rashi (s.v. michalfi seudatayhu), however, interprets this gemara to mean that each year, one of these two Amoraim would host the other, with the host and guest switching roles the following year. This gives rise to an obvious question, posed by the Beit Yosef in siman 695: how did the guest fulfill the mitzvah of mishloach manot? And how would switching roles the following year solve that shortcoming? The answer offered by the Bach there is that the purpose of mishloach manot is, as the Manot HaLevi says, to rejoice with one's loved ones and neighbors and to establish love, fraternity, and good feeling amongst them. In that case, explains the Bach, when one shares the Purim seudah with his friends and loved ones, they are ensconced in happiness together to such an extent that they become exempt from the mitzvah of mishloach manot, having already fulfilled its purpose. (While one cannot discern the Rambam's position on the reason for mishloach manot from the fact that he understands this gemara as does the Ran, some infer that the Rambam, like the Terumas HaDeshen, views mishloach manot as related to the seudah from the fact that he includes them in the same halachah (Hilchot Megillah Perek 2 Halachah 16), which begins with the words "Keytzad chovat seudah," and then continues "v'chen chayav adam lishloach shtei manot . . ." (This view is brough in the name of Rav Soloveitchik in the sefer Harrerei Kedem, Vol. I, siman 206). This inference may (but may not) be less compelling than would first appear, however, because, according to the Frankel edition of the Rambam, what we refer to as Halachah 16 is in fact two halachot, with the break occurring immediately before the reference to the mitzva of mishloach manot.) The Bach's view is not shared by all. The Levush, for example, writes explicitly in siman 695, seif 4 that the purpose of mishloach manot is that articulated by the Terumas HaDeshen. As noted above, however, the Rema seems clearly to pasken in accordanc with the view of the Manot HaLevi. The Aruch HaShulchan, too, writes explicitly in siman 695, seif 13 that the reason for the mitzvah is happiness, and not to provide sufficient food for the seudah. Thus, for example, the Aruch HaShulchan writes in seif 16 that one fulfills the mitzvah even if the recipient is away from home and never even sees the mishloach manot on Purim, so long as the recipient knows on Purim that he received it– a position that would be impossible for the Terumas HaDeshen to maintain. The Aruch HaShulchan also makes an interesting distinction, however. On the one hand, he writes that if one designates a shaliach before Purim to deliver mishloach manot on Purim, one fulfills the mitzvah. On the other hand, if one sends mishloach manot before Purim to someone in a far away place, so that it arrives on Purim, one does not fulfill the mitzvah. What accounts for this difference? After all, in both instances, one performed one's own action before Purim, and the mishloach manot were received on Purim. In the case of the shaliach, the Aruch HaShulchan explains, it is as if one has performed the mitzvah on Purim itself, because of the princple that a shaliach is like the principal himself. In the case where one simply sends the mishloach manot before Purim in order that they should arrive on Purim, however, the Aruch HaShulchan asks, "what happiness does what he sent earlier bring him now?" As in my English translation, the original Hebrew is slightly ambiguous as to whether the "him" refers to the recipient or the sender - but the better reading appears to be that it is referring to the sender himself. In that case, the Aruch HaShulchan holds that the purpose of the mitzvah of mishloach manot is not just for the sender to show love toward his fellow Jew, but for the sender himself to feel that happiness, love, and fraternity on Purim - such that if he sends the mishloach manot before Purim, he cannot fulfill the mitzvah, because when he performs his act of sending it is not Purim and he therefore cannot feel the sensation of simchat Purim. Indeed, a close reading of the Bach mentioned above suggests the same, for he writes not that the purpose of the mitzvah is to show one's love for the others, but actually to instill that love among him and his fellow Jews ("d'ta'am mishloach manot hu k'dei she-y'hay sameach v'sas im ohavav v'reyav u'le-hashkin beineihem ahavah v'achava v'reiut"). None of this detracts from Martin's sage advice that one can fulfill the mitzvah of mishloach manot before this Friday's morning seudah by delivering just one parcel containing two types of food to just one person. Regardless of when and how many times during the day we deliver mishloach manot, however, let us all be zocheh to fulfill the mitzvah with a sensation of ahavah and achavah for our fellow Jews, and simcha at being able to celebrate simchat Purim with one another. With best wishes for a freilechen Purim to all. ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: <bsbank@...> Date: Sun, 20 Mar 2005 23:01:56 -0600 Subject: RE: Not drinking on Purim Russell J Hendel <rjhendel@...> wrote: "Rabbi Tvi Weinreb, Vice President of the O.U. recently wrote on the O-U website advice and a decision to recommend against teenagers drinking at all on Purim... Rabbi Weinreb ... cites several sources that the mitzvah was never to get drunk but only a little tipsy..." I attended a Purim seudah at Telshe Yeshivah in Cleveland (it was in 1971/5731 and coincidenttaly on a Friday morning). I clearly recall HaRav Gifter, ztz"l, telling me that the mitzvah of "Ad lo yada" was "Ad, aval lo ad bichlal." ---------------------------------------------------------------------- From: Meir Shinnar <Meir.Shinnar@...> Date: Mon, 21 Mar 2005 08:43:55 -0500 Subject: Re: zaycher vs zecher Someone wrote That the sound of a tzaireh is not 'ay' doesn't follow from the 'yud is silent' answer. The yud is 'silent' because a tzaireh followed by a yud sounds the same as a tzaireh not followed by a yud, regardless of how the tzaireh itself is pronounced/sounded. IMHO, you misunderstand the position of rabbenu Avraham ben harambam. The vowel sound ey has a vocalized y sound in it, which is part of the normal (at least current) ashkenazi pronounciation. Rabbenu Avraham argues two things. 1) that sefardim who pronounce tzere without the terminal y should not add that y in the case of a terminal yud 2) that the authors of the gmara did not have that terminal y in their pronounciation of a tzere, either with or without an actual yud, because they didn't include a stop between bne and yisrael. However, in medakdek sefardi pronounciation (at least for some communities), there is still a difference between z tzere and a segol, even though it is a small difference Meir Shinnar ----------------------------------------------------------------------
End of Volume 47 Issue 32